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Who were ancestors of Germanic tribes and where did they come fr

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: Ancient Mediterranean and Europe
Forum Discription: Greece, Macedon, Rome and other cultures such as Celtic and Germanic tribes
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Topic: Who were ancestors of Germanic tribes and where did they come fr
Posted By: Suren
Subject: Who were ancestors of Germanic tribes and where did they come fr
Date Posted: 10-Mar-2006 at 09:30
who were ancestors of Germanic tribes and where were they com from ? 



Replies:
Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 10-Mar-2006 at 11:46
I believe that the Germans are in large part descended from Paleolithic hunter gatherers who moved north from south central and south western Europe as the ice sheets melted and were later join by much smaller numbers of migrating neolithic peoples.

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Posted By: Killabee
Date Posted: 10-Mar-2006 at 14:03
I think they moved from the Scandinavia  and settled down in the West and Central Europe region during the Roman Empire Period. Hence, Scandinavian and German are closely related linguistically and racially.


Posted By: Exarchus
Date Posted: 10-Mar-2006 at 14:14
The culture itself comes from the Scandinavians (more precisely Denmark) I think. But several tribes who settled in Germania adopted a Germanic culture while being of a different background and assimilated in.

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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 10-Mar-2006 at 14:22

Scandinavia was originally inhabited by a mix of paleolithic peoples migrating from Central/Eastern and Western Europe. They would later have been joined by smaller Neolithic people migrating from the East.

I think Denmark is more a part of Germany than Scandinavia, prehistorically speaking. 



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 12-Mar-2006 at 11:49
Right. Denmark and other Nordic regions were settled by people from Central and or Western Europe (of post-Magdalenian culture ) in the late Paleolithic (epi-Paleolithic), when the ice cap melted and the warmer climate allowed for it.

But these peoples surely didn't speak Indo-European (Germanic) tongues. They acquired them at some point in the following process:
  1. In the 4th milennium BCE, pre-IE peoples from Ukraine move northwards to the Baltic shores and then to Denamrk and Sweden creating a hybrid culture (central Sweden is colonized then)
  2. In the 3rd milennium BCE, IE peoples known variously as the Battle Axe peoples and the Corded Ware people expand into all Central Europe from Belarus to Western Germany. A variation of them (the Individual Burials culture) takes over the Scandinavian region. This is one of the moments that can be considered at the origin of Germanic linguistic group.
  3. In the Bronze Age (c. 1300 BCE) the IE peoples of the Urnfields culture, stabilished north of the Alps expand in deferent directions, influencing the Nordic and East-Central European (IE) cultures. I'm uncertain if this influence can be considered as a invasion or not. If so, it could be another startpoint of Germanization.
It's pretty clear that Germanic and Italic (Latin) tongues are closely relatead inside the Western IE group. Nevertheless the archaeological logic of this connection is obscure. Much would be understood if, as some propose, Celtic languages (participant of the Urnfields phenomenon for sure) are also in that Westernmost goup... but others seem to find them pretty distant.

Whatever the case, the Germanic peoples appear formed with the Iron Age in Scandinavia and Northern Germany, and, benefitting from a weakness of the Celtic socio-political structure, they start scratching their territory in what now is Central and Southern Germany, Czech Republic and other nearby regions. This German expansionism is mentioned as causant of the migration of the Helveti that caused Caesars' intevention in Gaul.


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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 15-Mar-2006 at 05:53

 

The Franks ancestors didn't originate from scandinavia but the caucasus. Only the Goths I think were nordic.



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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 15-Mar-2006 at 06:07
Not that again. Not another try to portray the Franks as anything else but Germanic. Didn't you try to sell us the idea that the Franks were actually Gauls a few month ago. New research done since?

As we all know, the Franks originated as a federation of smaller West-Germanic tribes, settled in what is now The Netherlands and the German federal states of Lower-Saxony and North-Rhine Westphalia, who a few centuries earlier had come down from Scandinavia.
The first Frank that ever came close to the Caucasus was Charlemagne's ambassador on the way to the Harun al-Raschid in Bagdad.

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Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 15-Mar-2006 at 06:52
Originally posted by Komnenos

Not that again. Not another try to portray the Franks as anything else but Germanic. Didn't you try to sell us the idea that the Franks were actually Gauls a few month ago. New research done since?


One of the mistakes people often make about the Dark Ages is to think that all the populations were replaced. There were movements of populations and great changes in the nature of the ruling groups, but large populations also more or less stayed put and didn't change other than culturally. There is definately a Gallic strain in modern France. The Franks were definately Germanic and definately politically dominant in the area they controlled, but a considerable population simply became subject peoples. It also has to be remembered that during Frankish expansion, a number of areas were added either by conquest or sometimes simply by pledges of fealty, and many of these were areas that had formerly been under Roman administration, then ruled by administrators independantly after central authority broke down - towards the collapse, they had already secured their positions as hereditary. Some were even still using Roman titles like dux (later to be known as Duke) or comes (later to be known as Count).

Rarely were entire populations replaced or ethnically cleansed; this is really not common in the ancient world, though it did happen in isolated instances. It takes an awful lot of determination and effort to do by hand, it was easier and more profitable to simply conquer and subjugate a native population and install oneself as an elite class.


Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 15-Mar-2006 at 16:33
Good points.
As with any expanding Empire the Franks certainly absorbed population and culture of those areas they came to dominate. But the political and cultural elite of the Franks at the point of the formation of the Frankish coalition certainly had very distinctive Germanic traits. How much pre-Germanic ethnical and cultural residue the Chatti, Sigambri, Usipetri and all the other little tribes that merged into the Franks still had is a different question.

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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 15-Mar-2006 at 23:30
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

The Franks ancestors didn't originate from scandinavia but the caucasus. Only the Goths I think were nordic.



This is a baseless affirmation. We can't know the specific origins of the ancestors... though most were surely local (assimilated).

But when we mean cultural ancestry: all Germans seem to come from Scandinavia and Lower Germany ultimately. Middle and Southern Germany was Celtic in earlier times, including the region of formation of the Franks.

But any non-racialist approach to this cultural phenomenon of ethnic creation and transformation must focus in the cultural origin and that one is in Northern Europe.


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Posted By: RomiosArktos
Date Posted: 16-Mar-2006 at 19:13
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

 

The Franks ancestors didn't originate from scandinavia but the caucasus. Only the Goths I think were nordic.



Maybe you are referring to the Alans and not to the Francs.
The Alans indeed originated from the Caucasus and because of the pressure  from the Huns,most of them took the long journey to the west.Some however stayed in the region of the Caucasus and their descendabts are today the Ossetians.
Those who migrated to the west crossed together with the Vandals the frozen Rhine and started ravaging the Gaulish provinces.Most of them followed the route of the Vandals and their fate as well.A small number of the Alans settled however in southern France and this explains the names of villages like Allainville and other toponyms like Allaincourt.Their presence there didn't last long and they possibly lef no other trace of their passing from this region.By the 6th century they were completely assimilated and they disappeared from history.This is what I read once in a book about the Sarmatians(there was a small reference to the Alans).

I always knew that the Franks were germanics as far as their language,customs and culture is concerned(before the osmosis with the autochtonous Roman population),has anything changed in the light of new evidence?



Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 18-Mar-2006 at 10:15
Originally posted by RomiosArktos



Maybe you are referring to the Alans and not to the Francs.
The Alans indeed originated from the Caucasus and because of the
pressure  from the Huns,most of them took the long journey to the
west.Some however stayed in the region of the Caucasus and their
descendabts are today the Ossetians.
Those who migrated to the west crossed together with the Vandals the
frozen Rhine and started ravaging the Gaulish provinces.Most of them
followed the route of the Vandals and their fate as well.A small number
of the Alans settled however in southern France and this explains the
names of villages like Allainville and other toponyms like
Allaincourt.Their presence there didn't last long and they possibly lef
no other trace of their passing from this region.By the 6th century
they were completely assimilated and they disappeared from history.This
is what I read once in a book about the Sarmatians(there was a small
reference to the Alans).

I always knew that the Franks were germanics as far as their
language,customs and culture is concerned(before the osmosis with the autochtonous Roman population),has anything changed in the
light of new evidence?



I don't think there is any possibility to mix up the Franks with the Alans whose history you have outlined above.
And no, there hasn't been any new evidence about the origins of the Franks. I think the problem lies in the unwillingness of some French to accept that the Franks who came to conquer Gallo-Roman territory in the 5th century and gave the country its name, were in fact a Germanic people, at least their ruling elite.
It's called "historical revisionism" and is motivated by absurd nationalism.

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Posted By: RomiosArktos
Date Posted: 19-Mar-2006 at 08:32
Here in the Balkans historical revisionism is an almost everyday phenomenon (commited mostly by the Bulgarians of FYROM) so I thought that it was a phenomenon only of the Balkans.An exclusively Balkan habit.
I didn't expect that it also happens in Europe.


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 19-Mar-2006 at 12:05

Originally posted by RomiosArktos

Here in the Balkans historical revisionism is an almost everyday phenomenon (commited mostly by the Bulgarians of FYROM) so I thought that it was a phenomenon only of the Balkans.An exclusively Balkan habit.
I didn't expect that it also happens in Europe.

Greece may have the leap on the rest of Europe in many areas, but when it comes to inventing fiction histories, the Greek goverment is a mere upstart, less than 150 years. In the rest of Europe it's been going on in some parts for a millenia.



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Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 01:29

Originally posted by Komnenos

Originally posted by RomiosArktos



Maybe you are referring to the Alans and not to the Francs.
The Alans indeed originated from the Caucasus and because of the
pressure  from the Huns,most of them took the long journey to the
west.Some however stayed in the region of the Caucasus and their
descendabts are today the Ossetians.
Those who migrated to the west crossed together with the Vandals the
frozen Rhine and started ravaging the Gaulish provinces.Most of them
followed the route of the Vandals and their fate as well.A small number
of the Alans settled however in southern France and this explains the
names of villages like Allainville and other toponyms like
Allaincourt.Their presence there didn't last long and they possibly lef
no other trace of their passing from this region.By the 6th century
they were completely assimilated and they disappeared from history.This
is what I read once in a book about the Sarmatians(there was a small
reference to the Alans).

I always knew that the Franks were germanics as far as their
language,customs and culture is concerned(before the osmosis with the autochtonous Roman population),has anything changed in the
light of new evidence?



I don't think there is any possibility to mix up the Franks with the Alans whose history you have outlined above.
And no, there hasn't been any new evidence about the origins of the Franks. I think the problem lies in the unwillingness of some French to accept that the Franks who came to conquer Gallo-Roman territory in the 5th century and gave the country its name, were in fact a Germanic people, at least their ruling elite.
It's called "historical revisionism" and is motivated by absurd nationalism.

 

Actually there is nothing that truly decisively showed that the Franks actually conquered territories from the Gallo-romans other than kingdom of Syagrius. Below is the ultimate proof that the Franks represented a considerable proportion of the population of northern Gaul prior to the fall of rome.

The vast majority of Frankish graves were in fact in northern France although it is traditionally believed the Franks came from the exterior as an invader. There are evidences the Franks weren't like any other barbarians and weren't much like a foreign entity, foreign to northern Gaul (graves of 20% or more of Frankish mingled with the Gauls were frequent prior to the barbarian in northern Gaul). It could actually have been a rebellion in northern France, the Franks no longer accepting romans rule. The Frank didn't overun Northern gaul but shielded it. The Franks in fact were an obscure tribe during the barbarian invasion. Remember Clovis Capital was in tournai (Wallonia, a celtic stronghold) before he moved it to Paris. It is now believed that Syagrius lasted only that long because of the Franks shielded them from the barbarian.

http://photobucket.com/albums/v286/TemplarX2/?">BurialsiteinFrance.jpg

 

http://photobucket.com/albums/v286/TemplarX2/?">Frank2.jpg

How else would you explain, all tribes of northern Gaul rallied behind the Franks and not the burgunds, Goth or any other clan. How else can you explain the north and south divide of France where all agricultural tools in the north have Frankish name  while in the south they have romans name.

 

How else would explain tyhe Franks favoured wine production over beer production and have law to protect vineyard from raid?

The Franks being Germanic is propaganda bullsh!t  by celtophobes and the enemies of France. Although I don't deny their germanic culture, racially anything near western germany or eastern France proved to have a high frequency of "Celtic" genes.

Race over culture. 



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Posted By: Imperator Invictus
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 01:44
I don't understand what you are trying to say. Your arguments aren't coherent.

The picture you posted shows that the Franks manufactured Germanic items.

It is widely understood that the Franks entered the Roman Empire in 350s A.D. during the Reign of Julian the Apostate as Foederati troops for Rome. As foederati, the Franks were obligated to help the Romans defend against other invaders.

350 is before the fall of Rome.

The Franks were definately Germanic, although it has been argued that a large part of their Hegemony included other peoples.


Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 02:09

Originally posted by Imperator Invictus

I don't understand what you are trying to say. Your arguments aren't coherent.

The picture you posted shows that the Franks manufactured Germanic items.

It is widely understood that the Franks entered the Roman Empire in 350s A.D. during the Reign of Julian the Apostate as Foederati troops for Rome. As foederati, the Franks were obligated to help the Romans defend against other invaders.

350 is before the fall of Rome.


My post is coherent; it is you that isn't getting the point. He claimed the Franks overran Northern Gauls, when in reality the Franks were already embedded into the Gallic society prior to the barbarian invasion. Northern Gaul readily rallied behind the Franks. Why would that be? Why didn't they rally behind the Goths, burgundian or behind even Syagrius. This was because the people could relate to the Franks and not the Goths, burgundians or even the romans.

The simple fact that all agricultural tools in northern gaul have Frankish names proved that even the peasantry were of Frankish or more precisely of Franco-Gallic origin.

Saying the Franks were merely germanic is an abomination and degradation of the French heritage which includes our beloved franks (make no mistake about that.) That anti-french propaganda must cease. History is well known to be little more than a lie, time to re-establish the truth.

My point is the Frank is nothing like the other barbarians for the follwoing reason:

1. They preferred wine over beer and had laws that protect vineyard.

2. The Franks was the from areas that had strong celtic population.

3. The Franks had been labelled as Galli by the romans.

 

 I do not deny the Franks were culturally germanic, but racially they were more akin to the Gaul as every tribes that bordered the Franco-Germans regions were and their ultimate origin isn't scandinavia. They picked the culture when they transited through germany.

THe sicambri (most rulers of the Frank claimed the decend from) were original a scythian tribe not an scandinavian tribe. get that straight. Germanic isn't a race but a mosaic of races from all other a wide area.

Extract

The Sicambri (var. Sicambres, Sigambrer, Sugumbrer, Sugambri) were originally a Scythian or Cimmerian tribe who once inhabited the mouth of the river Danube. The Merovingian kings claimed their descent from the Sicambri, asserting that this tribe had changed their name to "Franks" in 11 BC under the leadership of a certain chieftain called "Franko". The Merovingians traced their Sicambrian origins from Marcomir I, king of the Cimmerians (died 412 BC), and ultimately to the kings of Troy, but this list of rulers is not accepted as historical.

The West Germanic tribe of the Sigambrer (Sicambri) appear around 55 BC, during the time of the Roman Empire, on the right bank of the Rhine between the rivers Ruhr and Sieg, in an area that is today part of the German state of North Rhine-Westphalia. The river Sieg, as well as the city of Siegen, were said to be named for this tribe.

In 11 BC, they were forced by Nero Claudius Drusus to move to the left side of the Rhine, where they evidently formed a central component of the confederacy of Franks. Their new homeland was located in what is now the region of Gelderland in the Netherlands, on the lower Rhine river.

Gregory of Tours states that the Frankish leader Clovis, on the occasion of his baptism into the Catholic faith in 496, was referred to as Sicamber by the officiating bishop of Rheims -- recalling again the link between the Sugambri and Clovis' ancestors, the Merovingian royal house of the Franks.

The Sicambri (var. Sicambres, Sigambrer, Sugumbrer, Sugambri) were originally a Scythian or Cimmerian tribe who once inhabited the mouth of the river Danube. The Merovingian kings claimed their descent from the Sicambri, asserting that this tribe had changed their name to "Franks" in 11 BC under the leadership of a certain chieftain called "Franko". The Merovingians traced their Sicambrian origins from Marcomir I, king of the Cimmerians (died 412 BC), and ultimately to the kings of Troy, but this list of rulers is not accepted as historical.

The West Germanic tribe of the Sigambrer (Sicambri) appear around 55 BC, during the time of the Roman Empire, on the right bank of the Rhine between the rivers Ruhr and Sieg, in an area that is today part of the German state of North Rhine-Westphalia. The river Sieg, as well as the city of Siegen, were said to be named for this tribe.

In 11 BC, they were forced by Nero Claudius Drusus to move to the left side of the Rhine, where they evidently formed a central component of the confederacy of Franks. Their new homeland was located in what is now the region of Gelderland in the Netherlands, on the lower Rhine river.

Gregory of Tours states that the Frankish leader Clovis, on the occasion of his baptism into the Catholic faith in 496, was referred to as Sicamber by the officiating bishop of Rheims -- recalling again the link between the Sugambri and Clovis' ancestors, the Merovingian royal house of the Franks.



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Posted By: Imperator Invictus
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 02:47
No, the Franks settled in Roman Gaul because the Emperor Julian allowed them to, in return for service to the Empire. The Franks were troops of the Roman Empire so of course they helped defend against other invaders. Before the Franks settled in Roman lands during the reign of Julian, the Franks came from outside of Gaul.

Your argument is coherent because:
1) First you say that Franks were culturally distinct, then you say that cultural identification isn't important.
2) First you say that Franks were Celtic and then you say that Franks are Scythian. The last time I checked, Scythians weren't Celtic.


Posted By: Quetzalcoatl
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 04:18

Originally posted by Imperator Invictus

No, the Franks settled in Roman Gaul because the Emperor Julian allowed them to, in return for service to the Empire. The Franks were troops of the Roman Empire so of course they helped defend against other invaders. Before the Franks settled in Roman lands during the reign of Julian, the Franks came from outside of Gaul.

Your argument is coherent because:
1) First you say that Franks were culturally distinct, then you say that cultural identification isn't important.
2) First you say that Franks were Celtic and then you say that Franks are Scythian. The last time I checked, Scythians weren't Celtic.

 

It is you that is clearly confused and incapable of grasping the nuance in my argument.

 

Yes they were allowed to settle in Northern Gaul prior to the barbarian invasion, and who is denying that? Tell me who. So during the barbarian invasion, there were a large already a large population of Franks inhabiting Northern Gaul (The Frankish impact on Northern French agriculture proved so). IF the Franks (or Franco-Gauls by the time of the Barbarian invasion) were insiders, how can you truly speak of invasion? And the Franks fought hard against the first wave of barbarians, preventing the kingdom of Syagrius from collapsing. Are you getting that? Here is how Gaul looked like after the first wave of barbarians. Took note how Gaul collapsed in the south but not in the north. When the Franks took control of Gaul, their first objective was to clear the barbarian from the land. They suceeded against the Goth but not against the burgundians -- which was a mistake since the Burgundians were a pain in the @ss of France for a long long time.

 

 After the Franks (no barbarians)

 

Franc = Frank

Wisigoth = Visigoth

Burgondie = burgundy

http://perso.wanadoo.fr/jean-francois.mangin/merovingiens/images/royaumes_barbares.gif -

1) First you say that Franks were culturally distinct, then you say that cultural identification isn't important.

Again you are confused. Yes, I said they were culturally distinct, but for race matters most over culture. Norman clans are like Family and blood over everything else.


2) First you say that Franks were Celtic and then you say that Franks are Scythian. The last time I checked, Scythians weren't Celtic.

More confusion from your part. I said the Frank were racially celtic overwhemingly and that on racial term, since they resided in areas that were traditionally by celts. And their ultimate origins (ultimate as as far as they could remember is scythian, how hard is that to understand.

 

 




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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 07:50

Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

France proved to have a high frequency of "Celtic" genes.

 

Celtic Genes ???????????

 

I take it you're using 19th century genetic science.



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Posted By: RomiosArktos
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 09:36
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl



It is you that is clearly confused and incapable of grasping the nuance in my argument.

 

Yes they were allowed to settle in Northern Gaul prior to the barbarian invasion, and who is denying that? Tell me who. So during the barbarian invasion, there were a large already a large population of Franks inhabiting Northern Gaul (The Frankish impact on Northern French agriculture proved so). IF the Franks (or Franco-Gauls by the time of the Barbarian invasion) were insiders, how can you truly speak of invasion? And the Franks fought hard against the first wave of barbarians, preventing the kingdom of Syagrius from collapsing. Are you getting that? Here is how Gaul looked like after the first wave of barbarians. Took note how Gaul collapsed in the south but not in the north. When the Franks took control of Gaul, their first objective was to clear the barbarian from the land. They suceeded against the Goth but not against the burgundians -- which was a mistake since the Burgundians were a pain in the @ss of France for a long long time.


But Franks were  ''brothers'' of those that you call barbarians.They were both germanics.They had germanic names,germanic customs.The only thing that differentiated them from their Burgundian or Gothic ''brothers'' was the fact that they were foederati  which means that they were in the service of Rome,they were allies of Rome.Nothing else.On the contrary,the Burgundians and the Goths were not allies of Rome


Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl


1) First you say that Franks were culturally distinct, then you say that cultural identification isn't important.

Again you are confused. Yes, I said they were culturally distinct, but for race matters most over culture. Norman clans are like Family and blood over everything else.

In my opinion culture matters over race.Especially in France there were so many people who invaded this place that it is not very wise to speak only about celtic genes and celtic racial purity.
If as you say race is more important than culture then why you regard the Normans as Franks,since they were Scandinavians?



Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl



More confusion from your part. I said the Frank were racially celtic overwhemingly and that on racial term, since they resided in areas that were traditionally by celts. And their ultimate origins (ultimate as as far as they could remember is scythian, how hard is that to understand.


This is science fiction.You remind me of a forumer who was trying to prove that the slavs always existed in the Balkans with various names even  in antiquity.
These theories are absurd.They have no logical basis.
Francs can't have been celts.

 

 





Posted By: Imperator Invictus
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 10:10
So just because the Franks fought for the Romans it means that they were Celtic? A lot of Huns fought for the Romans too. Does that mean the Huns must have been Celtic too?

Race is something that people like to fantasize about to support their historical fantasies.

What matters is the culture because culture is how people looked at others in the past and can be deduced from records.

More confusion from your part. I said the Frank were racially celtic overwhemingly and that on racial term, since they resided in areas that were traditionally by celts. And their ultimate origins (ultimate as as far as they could remember is scythian, how hard is that to understand.


Tell me how you change from Scythian to Cetic. Not understandable at all


Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 14:21
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

THe sicambri (most rulers of the Frank claimed the decend from) were original a scythian tribe not an scandinavian tribe. get that straight. Germanic isn't a race but a mosaic of races from all other a wide area.



As we are playing copy and paste, with no means of verifying the sources, here is another explanation of the origins of the Sicambri/Sugambri, one that might surprise you.

When the Roman general Julius Caesar reached the Rhine in the summer of 58 BCE, he accepted this river as the frontier between his conquests in Gaul and the region that he left to the Germanic tribes. This suggests that the river was a real border between the Celtic culture of Gaul and the Germanic culture across the Rhine. This is wrong. The tribes on the eastern bank spoke a language that resembled Celtic and, archaeologically speaking, belonged to a culture that was close to the Celtic La Tène-culture. If we call these tribes "Germanic", it is only because Caesar had used this word to describe all inhabitants One of these tribes was that of the Sugambri, who lived in the area of the rivers Ruhr and Lippe. They are the "parent tribe" of the Cugerni.......

One final remark: what happened to those Sugambri who were not transferred to the west bank of the Rhine?
They are probably identical to the tribe of the Marsi that is known from several sources. Like other tribes on the Rhine's east bank, they were weakened by the forced migrations, and fell victim to the Germanic tribes.
By the mid-third century, a new ethnic group was living in the former Sugambrian country: the Franks.
Unlike the Sugambri, which had belonged to the Celtic La Tène-culture, the Franks were a "real" Germanic tribe.
Caesar had once made as distinction between the more or less civilized Gallic and the barbaric Germanic tribes to the west and east of the Rhine; three centuries later, the situation started to resemble its description.


http://www.livius.org/ct-cz/cugerni/cugerni.html - Source

Although I'd rather sad to see the Sigambri go from the Germanic firmament, the Gallic version seems a lot more convincing than the Scythian.

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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 14:26
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

The Franks being Germanic is propaganda bullsh!t  by celtophobes and the enemies of France. Although I don't deny their germanic culture, racially anything near western germany or eastern France proved to have a high frequency of "Celtic" genes.


Race over culture. 



Is it a symptom of a persecution complex, or has the entire academic establishment, both in history and archaeology, really come together in one giant conspiracy to deny the French their "racial" origin.
I think we should be told.

The Merovingian kings claimed their descent from the Sicambri, asserting that this tribe had changed their name to "Franks" in 11 BC under the leadership of a certain chieftain called "Franko". The Merovingians traced their Sicambrian origins from Marcomir I, king of the Cimmerians (died 412 BC), and ultimately to the kings of Troy, but this list of rulers is not accepted as historical. (From Wikipedia.)



This might explain a bit:


Such was the fame of the Trojan story in Roman and medieval times that it was built upon to provide a starting point for various legends of national origin. The most famous is undoubtedly that promulgated by Virgil in the Aeneid, tracing the ancestry of the founders of Rome, and more specifically the Julio-Claudian dynasty, to the Trojan prince Aeneas. Similarly Geoffrey of Monmouth traces the legendary Kings of the Britons to a supposed descendant of Aeneas called Brutus.(From Wikipedia)





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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 20-Mar-2006 at 21:31
Those maps are horrible: they have just wiped out the Basques from all the scene! There were never Visigoths in Vasconia, at least for long...

Quetzacoatl: you have some strange ideas. Anyhow, whatever the supposed origin of the Sugambri, there is no such thing as "Celtic genes". If for those you mean Y-chr haplogroup R1b, that's 100% pre-Celtic (Paleolithic). Celts, like all those migrating groups that we know collectively as Indo-Europeans, got once and again diluted among natives.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Boreas
Date Posted: 24-Mar-2006 at 14:44

Reading the head-title of this topic - it seems that this discussion is trapped in the confusion of the tid-bit opinions of various, ancient Mediterranean texts, combined with the interpretation of traces from neolittic ceramics.

Maybe another angle can be helpful, which is this;

Germans - along with other groups north of the Pyrenees, Alps, Balkans and Caucasia - are certainly arctic. All these people have adapted - and specialized -  to an arctic climate,  to the extent that it has endowed in their very genetic material.  Further they have developed a life-form that makes it possible to survive in the arctic nature.

Given the premisses of a long-term habitation all these people have been developing certain culture,  - and even some specific physical features - such as; 1. An improved ability to absorb sun-rays (pale skin), 2. A specific ability to digest milk-protein and sugar  3. An extraordianry amount of blody-hair.

This is a set of features are today genetical, which prives that the arctic conditions have evolved into a mutation. Genes dont jump out of their settings - to mutate. Only a specific and long-term change of surroundings can make a body start mutating. The process leading up to permanently changed genotypes - do indeed require a large number of generations. Especially with the complex animals, such as mammals and primates.

Moreover, for the Caucasians to evolve it would require a permanent isolation. Otherwise the cross-breeding with any tropical relatives would stop the specific mutation from proceeding. Still today we see that tropical genes are dominant to arctical. When a tropical and an artical inter-breed their children will be dominantly tropic. Even when to caucasians breed, and one of them have "tropical", brown eyes; 3 of 4 children will have brown eyes and only one will have blue or green.

(A study from England recently made headlines, prognosing that - due to the present globalisation - the last blue-eyed blondie will probably be born about two geberations from now... 

The reason for the dominance of "tropical genes" have alwasy puzzeled etnologists. Until they came to think of the obvious, that  once upon the time we were all tropical.  Pale people just didnt exist - before a smal subgroup were stricitly isolated - under arctic conditions.

To be able to explain the arctic populus we have to find a place and a time, where a limited group of the original Eurasian,  was forced to endure a strict, long-term isolation. This will require a far look back, into the realms of the Euraisan ice-time, and the very first traces of modern man in Europe.

That done, we may explain the origin the arctic proto-population, that in time spread - like branches along the northern hemisphere - becomming "Schytians", "Roski", "Ugrian", "Finns", "Swedes", "Gots", "Danes", "Germans", "Francs", "Celts", "Basques", "Berbers", "Anglons", Saxons", "Welsh", "Picts" and "Scots". Not to forget the rest of the Atantic islanders.

Thus I suggest that you may have a search for the results from modern archeology, signifying where the populations of the Upper Paleolittic and the Mesolittic cultures - of the northen hemisphere - did occur. There are already a row of results from Northern Europe and Caucasia, so it should definitly be possible to determine where the first traces of modern man -of the northern hemifphere  - is to be found. That were the Germans, too, would have to come from...  

 

 



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Be good - or be gone.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 24-Mar-2006 at 23:00
Caucasoids have never been truly isolated and the milk-digesting ability can only have appeared in the last milennia - after sheep and cows started to be milked.

I doubt much of what you say makes any sense.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Boreas
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 02:59

Maju,

So how do you explain the arctical characteristics?



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Be good - or be gone.


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 06:42
I can't go with the arctic premise either. The body hair idea doesn't make sense, for one thing - northern Europeans are, in general, less hairy than southern Europeans. Moreover, true arctic peoples such as the Inuit or the Lapp, tend to have entirely different features. They have epicanthic folds to prevent becoming snow-blind, and they are not as pale, in many cases, as northern European peoples.

If Europeans are an arctic people where are their epicanthic folds? Why do they not retain body fat in the same manner as Arctic peoples? Why do they not have the fleshy cheeks of Arctic peoples? The extremity cold stress of Europeans is not particularly notable; Inuit maintain the world's highest peripheral skin temperature under cold conditions, and even Native Americans of relatively temperate climes tend to maintain a higher hand or foot temperature during cold exposure than do Europeans. Inuit at the same time are not well-adapted to warm conditions, sometimes suffocating to death under conditions Europeans endure without much difficulty at all.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 06:43
Originally posted by Boreas

Maju,

So how do you explain the arctical characteristics?



What do you mean? Blondisms?

I think such features were always among the Caucasoids (and even among some non-caucasoids) as can be seen in what could be a sample population of Paleolithic Europe: Basques - or even among Asian and Africa Caucasoids. Blondisms were there all the time, yet they were selected somehow in the northernmost areas, particularly because of the need of producing vitamin D without eating much fish (the Mongoloid alternative).

The milk-digesting capability can even give us a hint on the age of such selection: they are probably very evry recent. The genetics of pygmentation are not fully known yet but they seem to be limited to a few genes - some have suggested that any population would evolve into dark or pale in the adquate climatic circumstances in just 50 generations (c. 1000 years). This may be exaggerate... but in any case makes relevant that such skin-deep diferences are not very significative genetically speaking.

Apart of all those considerations, I'm thinking that maybe the strongest blondist selection happened not among fishermen "Danes" but among cowboy "Russians". Swedes seem more related to Eastern Europe than Danes genetically and they also seem more extreme in their blondism. What do you think about this?


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 06:50
Originally posted by edgewaters

I can't go with the arctic premise either. The body hair idea doesn't make sense, for one thing - northern Europeans are, in general, less hairy than southern Europeans.


That's an excellent point. But in fact one could say that iced hair can be a problem too...

Moreover, true arctic peoples such as the Inuit or the Lapp, tend to have entirely different features. They have epicanthic folds to prevent becoming snow-blind, and they are not as pale, in many cases, as northern European peoples.


Lapps are the most Mongoloid of Caucasoids. Inuit are clearly Mongoloid - archetypically I would say.


If Europeans are an arctic people where are their epicanthic folds? Why do they not retain body fat in the same manner as Arctic peoples? Why do they not have the fleshy cheeks of Arctic peoples? The extremity cold stress of Europeans is not particularly notable; Inuit maintain the world's highest peripheral skin temperature under cold conditions, and even Native Americans of relatively temperate climes tend to maintain a higher hand or foot temperature during cold exposure than do Europeans. Inuit at the same time are not well-adapted to warm conditions, sometimes suffocating to death under conditions Europeans endure without much difficulty at all.


Europeans aren't "Arctic". Most Europeans lived in the area near the Pyrenees before the north melted. Some lived elsewhere (Central Europe, Ukraine, Mediterranean) but never in the extreme north.

The most "Arctic" peoples are, as you say, Mongoloids like Inuits or Yakuts.

Also, Caucasoids only colonized Europe very late in time, being original of Southern and SW Asia actually. And, as I said before, once in Europe they remained in a relatively southern belt. Most representative of these early Europeans (we assume they have remain mostly unchanged) are Basques who show quite a variability.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 17:21
Originally posted by Boreas

Germans - along with other groups north of the Pyrenees, Alps, Balkans and Caucasia - are certainly arctic. All these people have adapted - and specialized -  to an arctic climate,  to the extent that it has endowed in their very genetic material.  Further they have developed a life-form that makes it possible to survive in the arctic nature.



Without wanting to accuse anybody of anything, the theory of the alleged "artic" origin of the Germans (surely Germanics !) rings a certain bell. One of the many diffuse ideas the Nazis came up with, was the "masterrace" originated from the legendary continent of Thule, somewhere up in the artic regions.

A new books informs on the Nazis search for the lost land:
" The institute's first president, the peculiar Herman Wirth, believed that the Nordic race had evolved in an Arctic homeland before founding a civilisation on the lost continent of Atlantis, somewhere in the North Atlantic.
Pringle's eye for detail means that The Master Plan is rich in such bizarre characters, ridiculous theories and colourful anecdotes. Some of her findings are almost too good to be true: when Himmler tells his scientists to go looking for evidence of "the thunderbolt, Thor's hammer", which he believed to be "an early, highly developed form of war weapon of our forefathers", it is hard to stifle a laugh. And the tales of the various expeditions are riveting reading, making the adventures of Indiana Jones (another archaeologist mixed up with the Nazis) look tame by comparison.
(From: "The Master Plan", by Heather Pringle. Review http://www.arts.telegraph.co.uk/arts/main.jhtml?xml=/arts/2006/03/05/bopri05.xml - here )

In the meantime, I rather stick with the conventional theories that the Germanic people are a mix of a migrating Indo-European with pre-Indo-European indigenous Scandinavian culture.

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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 17:40
Originally posted by Boreas

Germans - along with other groups north of the Pyrenees, Alps, Balkans and Caucasia - are certainly arctic. All these people have adapted - and specialized -  to an arctic climate,  to the extent that it has endowed in their very genetic material.  Further they have developed a life-form that makes it possible to survive in the arctic nature.

yes and people south of those regions are uberer since they can withstand and thrive in the conditions of the mentioned PLUS endure a hot climate without turning into beetroot and suffering sun stroke.

Kermanshah - -20 c in winter + 40c in the summer = ubermenchen.



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 17:43

Originally posted by Maju


Also, Caucasoids only colonized Europe very late in time, being original of Southern and SW Asia actually. And, as I said before, once in Europe they remained in a relatively southern belt. Most representative of these early Europeans (we assume they have remain mostly unchanged) are Basques who show quite a variability.

genetic mapping shows that most euros are descended from Central Asian migrations and others from Asia Minor via the Balkans (which would be the group you are describing).



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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 26-Mar-2006 at 18:30

Originally posted by Zagros

genetic mapping shows that most euros are descended from Central Asian migrations and others from Asia Minor via the Balkans (which would be the group you are describing).

The view based upon evidential archaeological and paleontological finds is that Europeans took the shortest route from Africa, through Palestine, Turkey and the Balkans and went nowhere near central Asia.

The UK DNA-Bioscience centre's genetic migration map seems to support their view too.



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 06:32

How old is that? 

This is what i am referring to; You see M173, I put the mouse cursor over it, that is the marker r1a from which r1b (most common in western and north western Europe) emerged.  You can also see two routes incomming from Turkey, who are thought to be the neolithic farmers.

https://www3.nationalgeographic.com/genographic/atlas.html - https://www3.nationalgeographic.com/genographic/atlas.html

R1a also shoots down into India from Central Asia and one branch goes off into deep Siberia and over the barrents straight into North America, almost all Amerindian males descend from this line too.



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Posted By: Boreas
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 08:42

Isn't this "old news" by now?

September 06, 2001

 

Humans Lived North of the Arctic Circle During Last Ice Age

A team of Russian and Norwegian archaeologists reports today in Nature that early humans actually lived north of the Arctic Circle during the last ice age nearly 40,000 years ago. Pavel Pavlov of the Komi Scientific Center and John Inge Svendsen and Svein Indrelid of the University of Bergen discovered traces of human occupation at a Paleolithic site in the European part of the Russian Arctic called Mamontovaya Kurya. In addition to hundreds of mammalian bones, they found stone tools and a mammoth tusk that appears to have been cut by those tools.

Based on these artifacts, the researchers cannot say whether Mamontovaya Kurya's early inhabitants were Neandertals or anatomically modern humans—but either way, the discovery is remarkable. If these settlers were Neandertal, it indicates that they were more capable humans than has previously been suggested. To adapt to such a cold environment would have required fairly robust technology and social organization. On the other hand, were these Arctic dwellers modern humans, it means that they traveled north with tremendous speed. According to other evidence, modern humans had only recently moved into southeast Europe some 40,000 years ago.

The authors tend to believe that these pioneers were modern humans. Whoever they were, though, they had an incredible ability to withstand the cold. Although the temperature is thought to have fluctuated wildly at the time, it was consistently colder in the Arctic than it is today. In an accompanying article, University of Liverpool archaeologist John Gowlett describes an annual average temperature of -1 degrees Celsius. "The new finds show that humans had a hold on the north, if only for a short time," Gowlett writes. "Although there are questions to be answered, the artifacts illustrate both the capacity of early humans to do the unexpected, and the value of archaeologists researching in unlikely areas." --Kristin Leutwyler

http://www.sciam.com/article.cfm?articleID=000409A4-5E02-1C6 1-B882809EC588ED9F - http://www.sciam.com/article.cfm?articleID=000409A4-5E02-1C6 1-B882809EC588ED9F

 

U.S.News Cover Story 9/10/01
Early humans may have followed game north to the Arctic nearly 40,000 years before Gore-Tex

BY THOMAS HAYDEN

Picture Arctic Russia. Beautiful, sure, but also isolated, wind-swept, and justifiably famous for some of the longest, coldest winters anywhere. Now picture living there 40,000 years ago, with temperatures 20 degrees below today's and nothing to keep the Ice Age chill at bay except crude fur clothing and a campfire–if you could find something to burn on the treeless steppes.

It sounds impossible. But, writing in the journal Nature last week, Russian and Norwegian scientists say they've found evidence that humans lived at the Arctic Circle more than 20,000 years earlier than previously believed.

The team of archaeologists and geologists uncovered the remains of mammoths, reindeer, horses, and wolves along a riverbank on the western flank of the Ural Mountains. No surprise there–Mamontovaya Kurya, the local name for the site, translates loosely as "bend in the river where mammoth bones are found." But the scientists also unearthed a smattering of stone artifacts, including a scraper and what might be a knife. And one mammoth tusk, carbon-dated at about 36,000 years old, is scored by dozens of parallel scratches, as if a Paleolithic short-order cook had used it for a chopping board. The tusk and the tools, say the researchers, could only be the work of human hands. The question is, what sort of humans?

Most anthropologists say modern people–our direct ancestors–were just arriving in Europe from the south at the time and didn't colonize the far north until near the end of the last Ice Age 13,000 or 14,000 years ago. Neanderthals, the original "cavemen" who occupied Europe for at least 150,000 years before modern humans arrived, were certainly capable of producing the simple implements found at Mamontovaya Kurya. But all previous evidence puts them much farther south. "It could have been Neanderthals," says Jan Mangerud, a Norwegian geologist who works with the Mamontovaya Kurya team. "But no one thought they could live that far north."

The researchers favor modern humans, but recent excavations in southern Europe have resulted in dramatic revisions to the Neanderthals' brutish reputation. Erik Trinkaus, an anthropologist at Washington University in St. Louis, says that by 36,000 years ago, Neanderthals probably had both the technology and the social organization for Arctic survival. But he's not convinced they–or anyone else–were really there so long ago. The scratched mammoth tusk is "tantalizing," he says, "but lots of marks can be made by washing around in the water." And the stone tools could have started out in a more recent deposit and been washed into the site by erosion. "I'm willing to be convinced," says Trinkaus, "but we need more evidence."

He may not have to wait long. Arctic permafrost is melting and ancient glaciers across the north are receding, exposing previously covered artifacts. Excavations will continue, says Mangerud, and if early people really did colonize the Arctic, "there are no real hurdles to finding evidence even further north."

<<<>>>

http://www.sciam.com/article.cfm?articleID=000409A4-5E02-1C61-B882809EC588ED9F -

http://codesign.scu.edu/anthroweb2/027/page7.html - http://codesign.scu.edu/anthroweb2/027/page7.html

http://www.sciencemag.org/cgi/content/abstract/sci;303/5654/52 - http://www.sciencemag.org/cgi/content/abstract/sci;303/5654/ 52

http://www.jqjacobs.net/anthro/paleoamericans.html - http://www.jqjacobs.net/anthro/paleoamericans.html

 

*************

 

PS: I would really apreciate if you could be able to keep Hitler, Himmler, Rosenberg and their collegues out of this discussion.

As far as I know they are all dead - and long gone from modern academia. If Komnenos insists to discuss his "ringing bells" - please take that in another forum, if the intention is to keep this somewhat scientific.

 

Best regards



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Be good - or be gone.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 09:38
Probably ancestors of Lapps, who at that time were undoubtedly Mongoloid. And your arguments that Euroes, north of the mentioned areas, are more suited to Arctic conditions hold no water, as unequivacally described by other members, the best suited to such conditions are Mongoloids, specifically of the Arctic Inuit type.

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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 10:55

Zagros,

The habitats in question are early examples of the culture that came to populate the northern hemisphere, as the glaciers of ice-time receeded.

20.000 yrs BP they are found in the White Sea and the Baltic.

12.-15.000 yrs BP they are in Scandinavia and Northern Europe. At the same time they appear in the arctic part of America.

10.000 BP they had populated the islands of the North Atlantic.

8.500 BP they had already created the first known "megalithic civilisation" of Northern Europe  (Germany-Balkans).

---

According to present results from the European Genome Project the Scandinvian population, as well as the islanders - haven't changed notably over the last 10.000 years. Same with the Basques, - which are also explained to "originate from the first migrational wave of hunter-gathers".

---

Since Mesolithic time we see two mainlines of culture spreading in Eurasia, one western and one eastern. The border line is clearly related to the river Wizla (Weichsel) in todays Poland. Curiously we find the same divisional line in Scandinavia - between the Finns (east) and the Swedes/Norwegians.

This east-west border - from Scandinavia to Transylvania - is still seen in the etnographical and linguistical characteristics of Northern Europe. The Scandinavian Torne is still dividing Scandinavians and Finno-Ugrians - establishing that they have co-existed - as neigbours - for the last 10.000 years.

---

A third group of people are the "Mongul" populations, who originated  in the area of Tibet. As the Eurasian ice-cap meltetd along the Ural mountain-chain they migrated northwards - finally arriving at the Arctic Ocean. From where they spread both east and west, creating 12 tribes (!) around the arctic area. Thus we have Lappish people in Scandinavia, Samojeds (etc) in Russia, Inuits (etc.) in Cananda and Eskimos on Greenland.

Still there is no scientist suggesting that the arctical Europeans descended from monguls. The reasons why are simple, plain and obvious - to anyone with a  basic understanding of the possible models for early Eurasian migrations.

---

You may still choose to believe otherwise - but arctical Eurasians are far better fit - both physically and culturally - to endure the arctic winters than are any African tribe. Because they were - once upon the time - forced to adjust to it.

I am sorry if these discoveries should upset you emotionally or otherwise - but I guess we have to learn to live with the results modern science are proving before us. If new pictures show new and unknown forms and features of an old, misty landscape, we may benefit from adjusting the old maps rather than the new photos.

 

 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 11:00

Maju,

quote;

"Europeans aren't "Arctic". Most Europeans lived in the area near the Pyrenees before the north melted. Some lived elsewhere (Central Europe, Ukraine, Mediterranean) but never in the extreme north.

The most "Arctic" peoples are, as you say, Mongoloids like Inuits or Yakuts.

Also, Caucasoids only colonized Europe very late in time, being original of Southern and SW Asia actually. And, as I said before, once in Europe they remained in a relatively southern belt. Most representative of these early Europeans (we assume they have remain mostly unchanged) are Basques who show quite a variability."

This is basically based on assumptions. The results of Eurasian archeology - over the last two decades - have led to entirely new models of the first migration-patterns. See above.

---

Your comment on the difference between the Danes and the Swedes are very significant, as it proves that the Scandinavians (also) were divided in sub-groups, who enjoyed different inter-national relations respectively.

For obvious reasons there are intimate links between the Danes and the German/Celtic tribes of continental Europe. The Swedish had closer ties to the east - where several inter-marriages occured. Thus the Danes traded towards along the inland of Europe - reaching the Mediterranean already 7000 BP,- while the Swedes traded with the east - reaching  the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. The best maritime culture were (already then)  the Norwegians (that time called Gots) - who populated the Atlanten Islands as they become inhabittable. Today there are several universities in the US relating the paralell cultures between west-caost Europe and east-coast Ameroica already during Paeolithic time.  From the Mesolithic era the point especially to the identical constructs and patterns fround in east-coast America and Norway - already 5.000 years before Leif Eriksson.

Which accord to a logic time-line of - what I call - "artic culture", simply becaue that defines it quite clear and still correct. Unless you are able to prove that the Vikings actually were descendants of the Eskimos.

Best regards,



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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 11:09
Could be refering to the first Europeans who entered into Northern Europe in small numbers before the big freeze. Most retreated south to southern Europe when the big freeze happened but smaller numbers remained north. When the thawing began the southern groups who had multiplied greately moved north and absorded the few descendants of those who remained.

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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 11:36
Originally posted by boreas-is

Zagros,

The habitats in question are early examples of the culture that came to populate the northern hemisphere, as the glaciers of ice-time receeded.

20.000 yrs BP they are found in the White Sea and the Baltic.

12.-15.000 yrs BP they are in Scandinavia and Northern Europe. At the same time they appear in the arctic part of America.

Yes, Inuit types as mentioned, they are by far the best adapted to Arctic climates, physiologically.  Short and stout, their limbs are shorter for better heat retention, thicker skin and thin layer of fat beneath the skin for the same.  These people still thrive in the Arctic, if Europeans did, there would be at least pre-modern (2-500 years) evidence of it (i.e. Europeans with a very similar lifestyle as those described in the articles you pasted - there isn't

10.000 BP they had populated the islands of the North Atlantic.

8.500 BP they had already created the first known "megalithic civilisation" of Northern Europe  (Germany-Balkans).

Lapps

According to present results from the European Genome Project the Scandinvian population, as well as the islanders - haven't changed notably over the last 10.000 years. Same with the Basques, - which are also explained to "originate from the first migrational wave of hunter-gathers".

Uhuh, and that strangely enough co-incides with the receding of the glaciers and the movements of M383 (R1b) into the same regions.

A third group of people are the "Mongul" populations, who originated  in the area of Tibet. As the Eurasian ice-cap meltetd along the Ural mountain-chain they migrated northwards - finally arriving at the Arctic Ocean. From where they spread both east and west, creating 12 tribes (!) around the arctic area. Thus we have Lappish people in Scandinavia, Samojeds (etc) in Russia, Inuits (etc.) in Cananda and Eskimos on Greenland.

Mhm, and I have seen how Inuit like these people look.

Still there is no scientist suggesting that the arctical Europeans descended from monguls. The reasons why are simple, plain and obvious - to anyone with a  basic understanding of the possible models for early Eurasian migrations.

Neither am I.  I am stating that the present populations of the areas you mentioned are Caucasoids from Central Asia who moved into Lappish/Finno-Ugrians territory, and thus largely mixed with and assimilated them, changing most of th eregions languages to the Indo-European type.

I am sorry if these discoveries should upset you emotionally or otherwise - but I guess we have to learn to live with the results modern science are proving before us. If new pictures show new and unknown forms and features of an old, misty landscape, we may benefit from adjusting the old maps rather than the new photos.

Discoveries do not upset me, dis-interpretation thereof does, to a purely academic level. You are the one bringing Africans and such into the fray, where no one previously mentioned them, I think it is you who is upset at the facts of human evolution and are thus exploiting every available piece which you belive differentiates, what you no doubt see as your kind, from others.

Genetic mapping states otherwise, sorry to disappoint you.

 

 



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 11:39

Originally posted by Paul

Could be refering to the first Europeans who entered into Northern Europe in small numbers before the big freeze. Most retreated south to southern Europe when the big freeze happened but smaller numbers remained north. When the thawing began the southern groups who had multiplied greately moved north and absorded the few descendants of those who remained.

The genetic evidence (so far, check time meter on genographic site) suggests that the first migrations were from Central Asia, the ones through Turkey appear to only be between 5-10k years old.



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 11:42

Paul,

Your suggestion doesnt stick - genetically. Since the pale Caucasian os a mutant  (from mankinds common, brown-eyed/complexed ancestor) the "southern branch" you suggest would have had to be isolated too. For a very high number of generations.

To create that kind of isolation you need a cataclysmic disaster of some sort - otherwise you wouldnt get the boys to leave the girls back home, ye'  know. Even less so - if there were only tundra and ice - up north, there.

The nature phenomenon we need to be able to explain the actic proto-type actually happened - when a sudden occurance of ice-time blocked an wntire group of people - to a northern isolation. Today we know that a complete habitat - of hundreds, perhaps thousands of people - were separated from their southern relatives - as ice-time made any crossing of the Eurasian continents impossible. Thus we find the isolated hunter-gathers up north, along the ocean of the Gulf Stream - that (obviously) was able to survive the first shocks - and then grew "arctical features" - as they have had to endure a high-arctic winter - and hardly any summer.

It is not that complicated. And it is not that  strange. Unless you¨re winded up in some old explanation you're afraid to "loose".

 Best regards,   



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 11:46

Zagros,

1. So your suggestion is that the Lapps actually invented the Solutrean artefacts?

2. Where are the proofs hereof?

3. Why does all official Scandinavian history (the Fenno-Ugrian included) tell us otherwise?



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 11:56
Originally posted by boreas-is

Maju,

quote;

"Europeans aren't "Arctic". Most Europeans lived in the area near the Pyrenees before the north melted. Some lived elsewhere (Central Europe, Ukraine, Mediterranean) but never in the extreme north.

The most "Arctic" peoples are, as you say, Mongoloids like Inuits or Yakuts.

Also, Caucasoids only colonized Europe very late in time, being original of Southern and SW Asia actually. And, as I said before, once in Europe they remained in a relatively southern belt. Most representative of these early Europeans (we assume they have remain mostly unchanged) are Basques who show quite a variability."

This is basically based on assumptions. The results of Eurasian archeology - over the last two decades - have led to entirely new models of the first migration-patterns. See above.

---

Your comment on the difference between the Danes and the Swedes are very significant, as it proves that the Scandinavians (also) were divided in sub-groups, who enjoyed different inter-national relations respectively.

For obvious reasons there are intimate links between the Danes and the German/Celtic tribes of continental Europe. The Swedish had closer ties to the east - where several inter-marriages occured. Thus the Danes traded towards along the inland of Europe - reaching the Mediterranean already 7000 BP,- while the Swedes traded with the east - reaching  the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea. The best maritime culture were (already then)  the Norwegians (that time called Gots) - who populated the Atlanten Islands as they become inhabittable. Today there are several universities in the US relating the paralell cultures between west-caost Europe and east-coast Ameroica already during Paeolithic time.  From the Mesolithic era the point especially to the identical constructs and patterns fround in east-coast America and Norway - already 5.000 years before Leif Eriksson.

Which accord to a logic time-line of - what I call - "artic culture", simply becaue that defines it quite clear and still correct. Unless you are able to prove that the Vikings actually were descendants of the Eskimos.

Best regards,



Just to say that the apparent diferences between Danes and Swedes (Norses would be closer to these ones) is (if I am correct) genetic, not just in the modern sense but specially in the ethymological one: that of genesis: creation, formation.

My understanding is that Danes have a Magdalenian substrastrum that ties them to Western (and Central) Europe, over which other groups from Eastern Europe (pre-IE and IE) migrated with their own cultural and biological secondary layers.

Instead Swetland, except for those areas of the south that have been historically Danish, was colonized only later by these Eastern groups, either via the Baltic or via Denmark. Norway is a later colonization for the most part but seems closer to Sweden in its genetic print.

In the end (see http://www.geocities.com/littlednaproject/Y-MAP.GIF - this map for reference), they seem to have diferent genesis and that is reflected in their Y-chr genetics (I don't know the details for MtDNA or other studies) and that may account for an "eastern" origin of the most extreme blondisms. Just that - I wouldn't like to go to far off topic, anyhow.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:03
Originally posted by Zagros

Originally posted by Paul

Could be refering to the first Europeans who entered into Northern Europe in small numbers before the big freeze. Most retreated south to southern Europe when the big freeze happened but smaller numbers remained north. When the thawing began the southern groups who had multiplied greately moved north and absorded the few descendants of those who remained.

The genetic evidence (so far, check time meter on genographic site) suggests that the first migrations were from Central Asia, the ones through Turkey appear to only be between 5-10k years old.

So you'd say Maqdalenian culture came from Central Asia. How about Solutrean and Gravettian.



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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:05
Originally posted by boreas-is

Zagros,

1. So your suggestion is that the Lapps actually invented the Solutrean artefacts?

2. Where are the proofs hereof?

3. Why does all official Scandinavian history (the Fenno-Ugrian included) tell us otherwise?

Official history? and how far back does this official history go? 40,000 years? I don't think so somehow.

Finno-Ugrians  (the original ones) not the ones mixed in with modern Europeans, in my opinion, were most similar to Mongoloid in appearance, like Lapps, this conclusion is corroberated with the oriental features often seen in Northern Germanics.  I cite Bismarck as a prime example.



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:12
Originally posted by boreas-is

Your suggestion doesnt stick - genetically. Since the pale Caucasian os a mutant  (from mankinds common, brown-eyed/complexed ancestor) the "southern branch" you suggest would have had to be isolated too. For a very high number of generations.



This is a terrible (but common) error: you are magnifying the mutation!

The "mutation" actually must have existed since always: after all pygmentation is a matter of gradation: there are no extreme black-white but people that tans more or less easily and is more or less basically tanned under the same conditions. This gradation had long time to be selected in the diferent enviroments and societies.

Assuming that modern Europeans from the areas densely populated in the Paleolithic are representative of their geographical ancestors (Basques, Southern Germans and Ukranians, but also Spaniards and Italians) "Paleolithics" were not of the hyper blond type but more varied. The selection of the most extreme types must have happened either in the  Epi-Paleolithic or Neolithic, apart of a possible hyper-blond type associated to IEs.

This means that it's been selected in a few milennia, probably for health reasons, what would be coherent with all I know: that a popualtion can select these extreme traits in relative few generations if it happens to be a markedly possitive trait.

Now, let's forget about skin-deep differences and get to less enviromentally adaptative differences, like genetics or... even the shape of skulls if you wish.


To create that kind of isolation you need a cataclysmic disaster of some sort - otherwise you wouldnt get the boys to leave the girls back home, ye'  know. Even less so - if there were only tundra and ice - up north, there.

The nature phenomenon we need to be able to explain the actic proto-type actually happened - when a sudden occurance of ice-time blocked an wntire group of people - to a northern isolation. Today we know that a complete habitat - of hundreds, perhaps thousands of people - were separated from their southern relatives - as ice-time made any crossing of the Eurasian continents impossible. Thus we find the isolated hunter-gathers up north, along the ocean of the Gulf Stream - that (obviously) was able to survive the first shocks - and then grew "arctical features" - as they have had to endure a high-arctic winter - and hardly any summer.

It is not that complicated. And it is not that  strange. Unless you¨re winded up in some old explanation you're afraid to "loose".

 Best regards,   



Cataclismic what?




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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:18

My opinion: The two latter have come from CA on earlier migrations (carrying M343), Magdelalian came from Turkey (M170). I made a mistake easlier with my timings for the first Turkey migrations, which actually correspond with Magdelalian archaelogical finds.



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:35

Zagros,

Quote;

"Uhuh, and that strangely enough co-incides with the receding of the glaciers and the movements of M383 (R1b) into the same regions."

Whats the signinficance of M383? Please explain - or give a link that does.

---

2. Official history of N. Europe and Scandinavia starts with the first settlers from Paleolithic time.  Off course. Today we even have to include the pre-boreal populations - that lived here 120.000 years ago already.

The new discoveries I have reffered to are obviusly part of that history - although it is still limited to academical documents and discussions. But ALL the results I have reffered to are official - of course.

What you think is - I am afraid - not that significant. What you further think about my possible motives, etc. is rather speculative - congruating insults.

quote, Zagros:

"I think it is you who is upset at the facts of human evolution and are thus exploiting every available piece which you belive differentiates, what you no doubt see as your kind, from others."

That kind of remark are nothing but outrigth slander - from which you should refrain in an open forum. Moreover; It doesnt even touch the issue if this discussion. Speak for youself - and stop ducking my questions.

---

3. Genetical surveys of the Fenno-Ugrian population states - very clearly - that it is NOT Mongloid - but "Central European".  Besides, where are the genealogocal ties between Bismarck and Finno-Ugians?!

 

 



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:42
Originally posted by Paul

Could be refering to the first Europeans who entered into Northern Europe in small numbers before the big freeze. Most retreated south to southern Europe when the big freeze happened but smaller numbers remained north. When the thawing began the southern groups who had multiplied greately moved north and absorded the few descendants of those who remained.


There was nobody living in the north: it was plainly frozen. Polar bears surely but nothing else.




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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:53
Originally posted by Maju

There was nobody living in the north: it was plainly frozen. Polar bears surely but nothing else.


Probably not even polar bears. Animals like that would only live at the coastal edges of glaciation, where they can catch seal and fish. In an area of permanent glaciation, there is nothing to eat - no plants, no herd animals because there are no plants, nothing. Only areas that have a summer thaw, or are have access to the sea, can support anything larger than microorganisms. There is an abundance of life in arctic regions that are near open water, or have seasonal thaws, but none to speak of in areas of year-round glaciation.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 12:54
Originally posted by boreas-is

Zagros,

Quote;

"Uhuh, and that strangely enough co-incides with the receding of the glaciers and the movements of M383 (R1b) into the same regions."

Whats the signinficance of M383? Please explain - or give a link that does.



Check Wikipedia for a more detailed reference, but R1b is the Y-chr haplogroup that "defines" Western Europe, being close to 80-90% among Basques, Gascons, Irish, Welsh, Cornish, Bretons, Scots, etc. And over 40% in all Western Europe, as defined by the "iron curtain" more or less but excluding Sweden and Norway and Greece.

It is assumed that R1b was exclussive or equally dominant among the Paleolithic Europeans of Western and probably Central Europe. Some of these people migrated northwards to Denmark and the other regions formerly iced.




3. Genetical surveys of the Fenno-Ugrian population states - very clearly - that it is NOT Mongloid - but "Central European".  Besides, where are the genealogocal ties between Bismarck and Finno-Ugians?!



Y-chr lineages are clearly marking to males of "Finnish/Uralic" ancestry in their past but overall genetics show them among Caucasoids and maternal lineages are mostly native European (which is not the case among Lapps or more eastern Fino-Uralic groups). Here we amy be before a case of patrifocal distortion of the overall genetic ancestry in the Y-chr study, as that which is seen in some parts of Latin America, where by the Y-chr would seem largely European but by theoverall study are mostly native.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 13:05
Originally posted by boreas-is

That kind of remark are nothing but outrigth slander - from which you should refrain in an open forum. Moreover; It doesnt even touch the issue if this discussion. Speak for youself - and stop ducking my questions.

Outright slander? hardly... they were conclusions based on what you yourself wrote, dunno why you're so touchy, you went off topic with some silly remark about me being upset by the theories you purported.

I can tear apart what you said and pull out the ambiguous comments which led me to say what I did, if you like, and if i am slandering, then there is veritas in the defamation.

And I will look over what you said again and see what I ducked, after dinner, if I have the time.

 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 13:26

Maju,

Your theory on "progressive blondism" - from "health reasons" - dont stick I am afraid. Neither do a presumption that "mutation have been exisiting from time origin". Biology just doesnt work that way - unless you bring an higher intelligence into the equation...

The original geno-type of the first human population would easily catch up with any major abrevation as long as there are contacts between the major population and any sub-group. Thus we need a long-term isolation to explain major genetical differences, where the sub-groups have developed into typological sub-groups, with genetic markers and biological characteristics.

(I dont magnify any mutation, thats already done - by nature...) 

If the Australian aboriginals were all pale we would immdeiatly explain it as a result of "isolationism". And rigthly so. When the sub-continent of India is etnically different from China we have a similar phenomenon - on each respective side of the Himalayas. When Africans are different form Amerindians we also explain that with simple logic and traditional etnography. Lately bio-chemistry have given us the nitty-gritties as well.

Now, all these etnic groups shows differences in "typological features" - from which thye major part can be reffered to by modern genetics as well. But they all have similarities that also tells of a common origin, right?When it comes to colors they vary, but they all have a clear percentage of pigmentation. What the northern popualtion have not. And it is exactly this phenomenon that makes the characteristics of the northern populations distinctly specific. Even if it is only skin-deep it is linked to other genetic markers that - together - tells of a long time in isolation - from ANY southern ancestors. (Remenber that if only one tropical lover would arrive - but in every 5th-10th generation - the dominant genes from their off-springs would radically change the entire process - keeping it off any typological mutation)

Add that these Caucasoids also have developed a distinctive culture - based on the arctic nature and the arctic climate - and you have what I called "the arctic condition".

Today we know that they came out of ice-time with these characteristics - populating the arctic Eurasia incredibly fast - we have to re-consider the origin of the northern populations. Even if we feel that Trans-Caucasia should be the navel of the civilized world.

Thus we have arctical popualtions that still have characteristics indowed in their etnicity, language and  culture. Just as the aborigninals, - on the other fringe of the world. Moreover, just as Aboriginals still exist across the Australian continent - you still find the Caucasians along the northern hemisphere of Eurasia. There shouldnt be any cause to deny that - as little as there should be any doubt that the old tribes of Northern Europe were - once - branches from a common, arctic origin. 

 



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 13:27
Originally posted by edgewaters

Originally posted by Maju

There was nobody living in the north: it was plainly frozen. Polar bears surely but nothing else.


Probably not even polar bears. Animals like that would only live at the coastal edges of glaciation, where they can catch seal and fish. In an area of permanent glaciation, there is nothing to eat - no plants, no herd animals because there are no plants, nothing. Only areas that have a summer thaw, or are have access to the sea, can support anything larger than microorganisms. There is an abundance of life in arctic regions that are near open water, or have seasonal thaws, but none to speak of in areas of year-round glaciation.


Sure you're right but the northern ice casket obviously had sea edges and covered large parts of the seas. So polar bears is a safe bet: they can migrate for long distances too.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 13:36
Keeep bashing. And have a wonderful evening...Clap

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Posted By: ulrich von hutten
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 14:17

shortly founded pics and mosaics of the rhine-area

or did they really come from spain ?

 

http://images.google.com/imgres?imgurl=http://www.engelchen.de/lucia/bilder/lucia0203.gif&imgrefurl=http://www.engelchen.de/lucia/lucia02.htm&h=217&w=194&sz=6&tbnid=bmY9jQOdnv3NiM:&tbnh=101&tbnw=90&hl=de&start=61&prev=/images%3Fq%3D%2Bgermanen%26start%3D60%26svnum%3D10%26hl%3Dde%26lr%3D%26sa%3DN -

or from spain,however ?



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http://imageshack.us">


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 14:20

http://www.bullfrogfilms.com/catalog/paint.html - http://www.bullfrogfilms.com/catalog/paint.html
http://www.bullfrogfilms.com/catalog/norse.html - http://www.bullfrogfilms.com/catalog/norse.html



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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 14:20

Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Paul

Could be refering to the first Europeans who entered into Northern Europe in small numbers before the big freeze. Most retreated south to southern Europe when the big freeze happened but smaller numbers remained north. When the thawing began the southern groups who had multiplied greately moved north and absorded the few descendants of those who remained.


There was nobody living in the north: it was plainly frozen. Polar bears surely but nothing else.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creswell_Crags - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creswell_Crags



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 15:32

Maju, Zargos

Dr. Cavalli-Sforza was a practical man. Consequently he linked his entire frame-work of genetical haplogroups to the "Out of Africa-theory".

Dr. Spencer Wells was one of his best students/co-workers. Today his into a large project with National Geographic - trying to trace down the whereavouts of the human migrations.

Today Wells is a famous jet-set-researcher/publisher/writer. In one of his maps he even concludes that the haplogroup 18b arrived in Europe some 40.000 years ago - inside the Cro-Magnons.

Zargos seem to believe that we Lapps and the Eskimos descends from the Cro-Magnons. 

Maju seem to believe that the same gen-marker created the west-coast populations of Europe. They are both sure that the present working-model of Dr. Wells are presenting irrefutible facts.

---

Among genticians Cavalli-Sforza's work is commonly regarded. As one of many.  But there are still a lot left to do before the genetical field - by themselves - can decide on the real-time values of genetical abrevations and mutations within the human genome. Consequently the base ALL their timelines on Archeological results - and their consequent hypothesis'.

Within antropology the "Out-of-Africa-theory" is highly - and increasingly - disputed. Evry reader of Scientific American knows that. 

Get some headbashers, Zargosus, and rip their brains apart. MAYBE that will give you some new knowledge - for a change.  Unless you've already found the eternal enligthment of wisdom, that is.

 



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 16:34
The single-origin theory is nowadays fully proven, I believe precisely by the application of genetics to the problem (genetic Adam and Eve, lack of relation with Neanderthal). Multirregional is what is totally against the ropes.

And anyhow it's not relevant. You are moving from here to there: which is your paradigm? That a mutant race evolved in Scandinavia under the thick layer of ice (that crumbled under the feet of the inexistent polar bears) and that these have nothing to do with the rest of the world? Sorry but that's not the reality.




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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 16:45
Originally posted by Paul

Originally posted by Maju

Originally posted by Paul

Could be refering to the first Europeans who entered into Northern Europe in small numbers before the big freeze. Most retreated south to southern Europe when the big freeze happened but smaller numbers remained north. When the thawing began the southern groups who had multiplied greately moved north and absorded the few descendants of those who remained.


There was nobody living in the north: it was plainly frozen. Polar bears surely but nothing else.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creswell_Crags - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creswell_Crags



I meant more north: like Scotland, Denmark and Sweden. England had an ice-free region so much north... but they are related with continental Magdalenian tradition, as do the first colonists of Northern Germany and Denmark, as the meltdown frees land over there. Anyhow these people were living in the very edges of inhabitability.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 17:05
The extreme north was unihabited, but in my explanation I was refering to Northern Europe, it's a big place, had a sparce population (in some parts) that survived and disapeared into the mass of later migrants.

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Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 18:13
Originally posted by Paul


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creswell_Crags - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creswell_Crags



Britain was occupied between glaciations ... not during. It's suspected that humans were driven out at least once, only to return later.


http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2003/11/1103_031103_ britainrepopulation2.html


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 18:38

Before Creswell Crags came along the line was "humans were driven out and no habitation during the big freeze". Now it's being rewritten year by year and discovery by discovery, who knows where it will lead. At first the dig showed habitation continued long after the big freeze. Now it seems to show rehabitation began long before the big ice age ended. However the break in habitation for tens of thousands of years still exists, just it's been snipped away at the edges. I doubt if Creswell Crags will ever close it either, but may shorten it more. So I think after Creswell Crags we can modify "humans were driven out and no habitation during the big freeze" to "humans were driven out and no habitation in the middle of the big freeze"

Unanswered questions though and whats really interesting is why did the rehabitants settle at Creswell Crags again after thousands of years of absences ? Coincidence? Or a continued habitation connection? And where dig the exodus go to and the pre-end of ice age reinhabitants come from. Were the really southern Europeans or a more northerly people retreating on to northern France?



-------------
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http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk - http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 18:51

Zargos seem to believe that we Lapps and the Eskimos descends from the Cro-Magnons. 

No, I don't, you just have no idea what i am talking about because you don't have a  deep enough knowledge on the matter or are just imbittered and are skewing my words--- Just because i state Central Asia as the migratory origin, you seem to assume by that I mean the migrants were Mongoloid. Look at that weblink i posted a while ago, it is compiled from Dr. Spencer Wells' research and everything I have said is based on my itnerpretation of his work.

Lapps, Inuits etc are Arctic people but they had nothing to with modern Euros north of the regions YOU mentioned.  The part of Central Asia I refer to were inhabited by Caucasoids and the r1b who migrated to Europe were defiantely Caucasoid, but NOT Arctic people, Arctic people are archetypally, as Maju stated, Inuits, they are, physiologically,  the best adapted to the conditons of such a clime.

Some Lapps:

These are the Inuit types of which I speak who have mixed in with Caucasoids in N Europe, to varying degrees.



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Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 19:03
Originally posted by Paul

Before Creswell Crags came along the line was "humans were driven out and no habitation during the big freeze". Now it's being rewritten year by year and discovery by discovery, who knows where it will lead. At first the dig showed habitation continued long after the big freeze. Now it seems to show rehabitation began long before the big ice age ended. However the break in habitation for tens of thousands of years still exists, just it's been snipped away at the edges. I doubt if Creswell Crags will ever close it either, but may shorten it more. So I think after Creswell Crags we can modify "humans were driven out and no habitation during the big freeze" to "humans were driven out and no habitation in the middle of the big freeze"


 And we're dig the exodus go to and pre-end of ice age rehabitants come from. Were the reallysouthern Europeans or a more northerly people retreating on to northern France?



But Creswell crags don't contradict anything much yet.

from the wiki:

"The main phases of stone age occupation were at around 43,000 BC then in a period between 30,000 and 28,000 BC and then again around 10,000 BC ... The scientists and archaeologists concluded it was most likely the engravings were contemporary with evidence for occupation at the site during the late glacial interstadial at around 13,000-15,000 years ago."

This matches quite nicely with the dates assumed for habitation of Britain as a whole between glaciations.

 

I have no doubt they could have been inhabited at the edge of a glaciation ... as I mentioned, it is possible to inhabit where there is access to water, or where seasonal melting occurs. But it is simply not possible for year-round glaciation, such as at the pole, to support anything other than micro-organisms. There are no plants, and access to liquid water is not possible due to the thickness of the ice. Exodus did occur in Britain during glaciation.

 

Unanswered questions though and whats really interesting is why did the rehabitants settle at Creswell Crags again after thousands of years of absences ? Coincidence? Or a continued habitation connection?

I don't think a connection is supported. They must just be a good site. The site was inhabited in Roman times, and even in post-medieval times. I strongly doubt it's connected to the habitation of 10 000 BC, even though, it is closer in time to the habitation of 30 000 BC.



Posted By: Ikki
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 19:31
Maju i don't understand the problem with the milk-digesting, last milennia isn't possible, the classical greek peasants eat cheese and the celts butter, so... they couldn't eat that milk? No possible, was their food.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 20:49

Originally posted by Maju

The single-origin theory is nowadays fully proven, I believe precisely by the application of genetics to the problem (genetic Adam and Eve, lack of relation with Neanderthal). Multirregional is what is totally against the ropes.

And anyhow it's not relevant. You are moving from here to there: which is your paradigm? That a mutant race evolved in Scandinavia under the thick layer of ice (that crumbled under the feet of the inexistent polar bears) and that these have nothing to do with the rest of the world? Sorry but that's not the reality.


 

Sorry Maju,

It's your OPINION against presented, well-documented proofs of archaology. Try again.



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 21:38
boreas-is wrote:

Zagros,

The habitats in question are early examples of the culture that came to populate the northern hemisphere, as the glaciers of ice-time receeded.

20.000 yrs BP they are found in the White Sea and the Baltic.

12.-15.000 yrs BP they are in Scandinavia and Northern Europe. At the same time they appear in the arctic part of America.

Quote Zagros:

Yes, Inuit types as mentioned, they are by far the best adapted to Arctic climates, physiologically.  Short and stout, their limbs are shorter for better heat retention, thicker skin and thin layer of fat beneath the skin for the same.  These people still thrive in the Arctic, if Europeans did, there would be at least pre-modern (2-500 years) evidence of it (i.e. Europeans with a very similar lifestyle as those described in the articles you pasted - there isn't

Quote:
10.000 BP they had populated the islands of the North Atlantic.

8.500 BP they had already created the first known "megalithic civilisation" of Northern Europe  (Germany-Balkans).

Quote Zargos;

Lapps

Quote Boreas:

According to present results from the European Genome Project the Scandinvian population, as well as the islanders - haven't changed notably over the last 10.000 years. Same with the Basques, - which are also explained to "originate from the first migrational wave of hunter-gathers".

Quote Zargos;

Uhuh, and that strangely enough co-incides with the receding of the glaciers and the movements of M383 (R1b) into the same regions.

Quote Stephen Wells;

"Western Europe's major line is the M383(R1b) are directly descended from the Cro-Magnon people who became the continents first human beings 35.000 years ago"

https://www3.nationalgeographic.com/genographic/atlas.html - https://www3.nationalgeographic.com/genographic/atlas.html

Quote Boreas:
Zargos seem to believe that we Lapps and the Eskimos descends from the Cro-Magnons. 

Quote Zargos;

No, I don't, you just have no idea what i am talking about because you don't have a  deep enough knowledge on the matter or are just imbittered and are skewing my words--- Just because i state Central Asia as the migratory origin, you seem to assume by that I mean the migrants were Mongoloid. Look at that weblink i posted a while ago, it is compiled from Dr. Spencer Wells' research and everything I have said is based on my itnerpretation of his work. 

---

Btw; Where - according to Your interpretation - do we find the origin of the Mongloids?!?!

 

 

 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 21:50

The Yana RHS Site:
Humans in the Arctic Before the Last Glacial Maximum


A newly discovered Paleolithic site on the Yana River, Siberia, at 71°N, lies well above the Arctic circle and dates to 27,000 radiocarbon years before present, during glacial times. Artifacts at the site include a rare rhinoceros foreshaft, other mammoth foreshafts, and a wide variety of tools and flakes. This site shows that people adapted to this harsh, high-latitude, Late Pleistocene environment much earlier than previously thought.

1 Institute for the History of Material Culture, Russian Academy of Sciences, 18 Dvortsovaya nab., St. Petersburg 191186, Russia.
2 Geological Institute, Russian Academy of Sciences, 7 Pyzhevsky pereulok, Moscow 119017, Russia.
3 Geological Research Laboratory of the North, Faculty of Geography, Moscow State University, Leninskie Gory, Moscow 119992, Russia.
4 Arctic and Antarctic Research Institute, 38 Bering Street, St. Petersburg 199397, Russia.

http://www.sciencemag.org/cgi/content/abstract/sci;303/5654/52 - http://www.sciencemag.org/cgi/content/abstract/sci;303/5654/ 52


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Mar-2006 at 22:22

Originally posted by Maju

The single-origin theory is nowadays fully proven, I believe precisely by the application of genetics to the problem (genetic Adam and Eve, lack of relation with Neanderthal). Multirregional is what is totally against the ropes.

Not at all. The recent survey you refer to is only ONE. And there are a number of limitations and some outrigth problems with it to. Like it's lack of explanation about modern people in America more than 13-14.000 years ago. Moreover it havent the results havent met any real professional parity yet, so it is far from clear - yet. Sorry again.

And anyhow it's not relevant. You are moving from here to there: which is your paradigm? That a mutant race evolved in Scandinavia under the thick layer of ice (that crumbled under the feet of the inexistent polar bears) and that these have nothing to do with the rest of the world? Sorry but that's not the reality.


Do I really have to ask you re-read my former posts?!

Like this passage;

"Most anthropologists say modern people–our direct ancestors–were just arriving in Europe from the south at the time and didn't colonize the far north until near the end of the last Ice Age 13,000 or 14,000 years ago. Neanderthals, the original "cavemen" who occupied Europe for at least 150,000 years before modern humans arrived, were certainly capable of producing the simple implements found at Mamontovaya Kurya. But all previous evidence puts them much farther south. "It could have been Neanderthals," says Jan Mangerud, a Norwegian geologist who works with the Mamontovaya Kurya team. "But no one thought they could live that far north."

Further evidence came up already 2004. See above.

No need to move here and there, Maju. My axiom is very clear - and you do already know it. Then please just look - and observe what your eyes are telling you - before you close them again.  Ice-age Europe didnt really look the way we all thought - when these and other new results started appearing some 15 years ago.

Today this new paradigm of paleolithic time have been verified - times over. Even students of antropology have to face this in their present curriculums. Still it may take a year or two before the geneticians are able to cope with it. So you may have some time for bashing and ridicule - until the National Wells Fargo-express are able to run the revised models of the human migration-patterns on global media.



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Posted By: edgewaters
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 00:00
Originally posted by boreas-is

Originally posted by Maju

The single-origin theory is nowadays fully proven, I believe precisely by the application of genetics to the problem (genetic Adam and Eve, lack of relation with Neanderthal). Multirregional is what is totally against the ropes.


Not at all. The recent survey you refer to is only ONE. And there are a number of limitations and some outrigth problems with it to. Like it's lack of explanation about modern people in America more than 13-14.000 years ago. Moreover it havent the results havent met any real professional parity yet, so it is far from clear - yet. Sorry again.And anyhow it's not relevant. You are moving from here to there: which is your paradigm? That a mutant race evolved in Scandinavia under the thick layer of ice (that crumbled under the feet of the inexistent polar bears) and that these have nothing to do with the rest of the world? Sorry but that's not the reality.


Do I really have to ask you re-read my former posts?!


Like this passage;


"Most anthropologists say modern people–our direct ancestors–were just arriving in Europe from the south at the time and didn't colonize the far north until near the end of the last Ice Age 13,000 or 14,000 years ago. Neanderthals, the original "cavemen" who occupied Europe for at least 150,000 years before modern humans arrived, were certainly capable of producing the simple implements found at Mamontovaya Kurya. But all previous evidence puts them much farther south. "It could have been Neanderthals," says Jan Mangerud, a Norwegian geologist who works with the Mamontovaya Kurya team. "But no one thought they could live that far north."


Further evidence came up already 2004. See above.


No need to move here and there, Maju. My axiom is very clear - and you do already know it. Then please just look - and observe what your eyes are telling you - before you close them again.  Ice-age Europe didnt really look the way we all thought - when these and other new results started appearing some 15 years ago.


Today this new paradigm of paleolithic time have been verified - times over. Even students of antropology have to face this in their present curriculums. Still it may take a year or two before the geneticians are able to cope with it. So you may have some time for bashing and ridicule - until the National Wells Fargo-express are able to run the revised models of the human migration-patterns on global media.



You're misinterpreting the data. They are correct to say our ancestors are from the c. 13000 BP era. Sites like Yana refer to one of many inhabitations of the north during interglacial periods, sites which were abandoned during glacial events. Given its location, it is further likely that this was inhabited by Mongoloids, not Caucasians.


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 03:09
Originally posted by Paul

Were the really southern Europeans or a more northerly people retreating on to northern France?



This is yet to be answered and, apart of any "miraculously significant" archaeological finding, only careful genetical studies can find - if they can at all.

Yet we do know that the proportion of population in Europe was largest in the Franco-Cantabric, Nord-Pyrenenan or Basco-Aquitanian area. The other major regions were Central Europe (Nord-Alpine area) and Eastern Europe (Pontic area), with some no disdainable pockets in Mediterranean Spain and Italy and maybe also in the Balcans.

Yet, I see no specific genetic difference between Central Euros and Western Euros, apart of those that seem to come from the East in later periods. In fact Central Euros as Germans seem slightly less Western than Danes, for instance, meaning surely a stronger Eastern inmigration in the Chalcolithic and later on.

So my idea is that Western and Central European aborigines are genetically the same or very simmilar and that only a greater ammount of flow from the East (IEs specially) accounts for most of the differences. The same can be said regarding Southern Europeans of Iberia and Italy, they have little Eastern (NE) input but they have more Mediterranean (SE) input,. probably brought in the Neolithic period specially with some ramifications going up to the NW.

Anyhow, your question is relevant, I believe, but a little too subtle to be answered with our present knowledge. All I can say is that "purest" British populations are almost identical for male lineages with Basques, yet, when it comes to maternal lineages, they seem more related to Northern Europe, whatecer it means.

In any case the genetic differences between Northern and Southern Europe are just of shade: both Italy and Denmark have about 50% R1b for male ancestry and the same can be said on H for female ancestry. Such homogeneity accounts for a single Western European population, even in Danes are more mixed with Eastern groups (I) and Italians with SE ones (J, E3).


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 03:17
Originally posted by boreas-is

Originally posted by Maju

The single-origin theory is nowadays fully proven, I believe precisely by the application of genetics to the problem (genetic Adam and Eve, lack of relation with Neanderthal). Multirregional is what is totally against the ropes.

Not at all. The recent survey you refer to is only ONE. And there are a number of limitations and some outrigth problems with it to. Like it's lack of explanation about modern people in America more than 13-14.000 years ago. Moreover it havent the results havent met any real professional parity yet, so it is far from clear - yet. Sorry again.

And anyhow it's not relevant. You are moving from here to there: which is your paradigm? That a mutant race evolved in Scandinavia under the thick layer of ice (that crumbled under the feet of the inexistent polar bears) and that these have nothing to do with the rest of the world? Sorry but that's not the reality.


Do I really have to ask you re-read my former posts?!

Like this passage;

"Most anthropologists say modern people–our direct ancestors–were just arriving in Europe from the south at the time and didn't colonize the far north until near the end of the last Ice Age 13,000 or 14,000 years ago. Neanderthals, the original "cavemen" who occupied Europe for at least 150,000 years before modern humans arrived, were certainly capable of producing the simple implements found at Mamontovaya Kurya. But all previous evidence puts them much farther south. "It could have been Neanderthals," says Jan Mangerud, a Norwegian geologist who works with the Mamontovaya Kurya team. "But no one thought they could live that far north."

Further evidence came up already 2004. See above.

No need to move here and there, Maju. My axiom is very clear - and you do already know it. Then please just look - and observe what your eyes are telling you - before you close them again.  Ice-age Europe didnt really look the way we all thought - when these and other new results started appearing some 15 years ago.

Today this new paradigm of paleolithic time have been verified - times over. Even students of antropology have to face this in their present curriculums. Still it may take a year or two before the geneticians are able to cope with it. So you may have some time for bashing and ridicule - until the National Wells Fargo-express are able to run the revised models of the human migration-patterns on global media.



You're saying nonsense: that some artifacts have been found in a pre-glaciar period in Scandinavia means nothing: H. Sapiens was then still in Africa! That's the date of "mithocodrial Eve"! There are no human (H. Sapiens) remains out of Africa until at least 90,000 BCE (Palestine)!

If those weren't Neanders and they are actual arctifacts it must have been some other branch of H. Erectus... But I bet for Neanders, as they seem very well adapted to cold.

Anyhow, you're building a castle of air on nothing. You can't just bring ahead a weird theory on a mutant Nordic race on a handful of stone tools only. That's just smoke-writting: it can't stand.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 03:23
Originally posted by Ikki

Maju i don't understand the problem with the milk-digesting, last milennia isn't possible, the classical greek peasants eat cheese and the celts butter, so... they couldn't eat that milk? No possible, was their food.


I believe I just said that milk-digesting mutation must have happened after domestication, so it must be recent, in the last eight milennia - as there was no doestic cattle in Europe before.

Another possibility is that the mutation is merely random (at first) or that we are ignoring something else. In any case, if such mutation would have helped people to survive and reproduce (as it probably did - but only in a Neolithic context) it would be selected quite quickly. You can see one of those specially favorable mutations become general in relatively few generations, if it truly gives better chances of survival and reproduction.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 06:44

Mjau,

I am sorry, but I didnt know that you could know the thruth of these matters better than every other archeologist. And I am still surprised that not even reality can make you change one of your preconceived opinions.

quote, Maju:

"You're saying nonsense: that some artifacts have been found in a pre-glaciar period in Scandinavia means nothing: H. Sapiens was then still in Africa! That's the date of "mithocodrial Eve"! There are no human (H. Sapiens) remains out of Africa until at least 90,000 BCE (Palestine)!"

Once more; Do you really think that this is a case where all factors are known, PROVEN and completed?!  In case how-when-where, and to what extent?

Mjau, quote:

"If those weren't Neanders and they are actual arctifacts it must have been some other branch of H. Erectus... But I bet for Neanders, as they seem very well adapted to cold."

 Anyhow, you're building a castle of air on nothing. You can't just bring ahead a weird theory on a mutant Nordic race on a handful of stone tools only. That's just smoke-writting: it can't stand."

"Weird" - what  kind of term is that? And, btw. this is no theory of mine. (Unfortunately I cant even take credit for any part of it...)

Placing bets are off course another matter - just don't call it science, fact and proof.  Just remember the old rule; don*t speak to soon - while the wheel is still in spin. This one has actually just started moving - and it is obvious that these discoveries represents a new facade to your window of competence. Including the matter of milk-digestion.



-------------


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 06:57

Edgewaters wrote;

"You're misinterpreting the data. They are correct to say our ancestors are from the c. 13000 BP era. Sites like Yana refer to one of many inhabitations of the north during interglacial periods, sites which were abandoned during glacial events. Given its location, it is further likely that this was inhabited by Mongoloids, not Caucasians."

And on what grounds do you build such an assumption, Sir?

My interpretations are basicly conclusions reached from various faculties -Russian, English, American and Scandinavian. There are none of them reffering these Mesolittic or Paleolithic sites to the mongloid culture. Because the items and structures found simply point in the oposite durection. You havent even viewed the material in question - or the repports thereof - and still you think that you are able to postulate the origin of these items and this culture? 

On top of that you place the next presumption, that I am the one "mis-interpretating the data".  Why should your "interpretation" be more valid than the one I prescribed? Except from being "yours"?!



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 07:25
Originally posted by boreas-is

Mjau,

I am sorry, but I didnt know that you could know the thruth of these matters better than every other archeologist. And I am still surprised that not even reality can make you change one of your preconceived opinions.

quote, Maju:

"You're saying nonsense: that some artifacts have been found in a pre-glaciar period in Scandinavia means nothing: H. Sapiens was then still in Africa! That's the date of "mithocodrial Eve"! There are no human (H. Sapiens) remains out of Africa until at least 90,000 BCE (Palestine)!"

Once more; Do you really think that this is a case where all factors are known, PROVEN and completed?!  In case how-when-where, and to what extent?



I say that you are building castles in the air...

You are the one that has not the slightest evidence for your exotic proposals. You find some mousterian or acheulean artifacts and from that you build whole Nordicist mutant theory that goes against everything we know either in the fields of archeology or genetics.

You are the one proposing something extremely odd: care to back it. I'm just defending the standard paradigm and you will find enough evidence for it anywhere, except amybe in Neo-Nazi sites.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 07:35
The mutant somethings from the glacial nowhere:



Along with the mutant Nordic albino tiger from the depths of the Sibiristan:



And other mutations of the Chernobyl cataclism:



... of 1 million years ago, when the mutants dominated Earth...



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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 07:52

You sure are such a cutie, Mjau.

These are all VERY convincing arguments. You just brougth this conversation - as well as this topic and this forum - to a new level. Much like Hitler did - when he ran out of arguments. He turned demagogical and started shouting. Sorry I just didnt understand that you were that desperate to defend your "superior position" as a Guru around here. This is nothing but nasty agression - to overrun an argument that dont fit with your lower self. Completly out of ethics.

Moreover, it plays the entire discussion - about these discoveries - rigth into the hands of the Neo-nazies. It's frightening to see that you dont understand that - unless you side with the neo-facists?!

---

The purpose of this thread is to have a serious discussion about the origin of the German tribes. That neccesarily includes the question about the north-europeans in general, which consequently require a closer look at the oldest civilisations or cultures known to have been inhabitting the arctic and sub-arctic hemisphere.

Thus an update on the most recent discoveries are obviously due. Any serious participant knows that it is imminent to discuss this issue without the presence of old, twisted paraphrases - or new-born demagogics - both serving as political arguments. Modern German science do not deserve that kind of treatment - and sure not the Scandinvian.

 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 08:16

More mongloids?

http://www.susiluola.fi/eng/archaeology.php - http://www.susiluola.fi/eng/archaeology.php

More non-existing mutants?

http://sydaby.eget.net/eng/wolf/wolf_ralf.htm - http://sydaby.eget.net/eng/wolf/wolf_ralf.htm



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 11:04
Schulz closed his article in Populär Arkeologi by pointing out that many years ago people in Central Europe found the remains of a neanderthal man who lived more than 250,000 years ago. "With this background one can perhaps guess that these visitors to the Wolf Cave were an earlier edition of the neanderthal man."


Neanderthal-thal-thal-thal...!!!

Why are you making us waste our time?!


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 15:55

Originally posted by Maju

Schulz closed his article in Populär Arkeologi by pointing out that many years ago people in Central Europe found the remains of a neanderthal man who lived more than 250,000 years ago. "With this background one can perhaps guess that these visitors to the Wolf Cave were an earlier edition of the neanderthal man."


Neanderthal-thal-thal-thal...!!!

Why are you making us waste our time?!

 

Judging from your latest posts (above) you certainly don't waste time in producing contempt.  Basing your outlines on premature conclusions, heresay and guesses. Just look at the way you used the last quote - to start your infameous bashing again - with no other substance than Mr. Schultz' hintful suggestion. Taken out of it's rigthful context - of course.

You better ask yourself why you keep using time offending other people's intelligence and common sense - not to say your own ditto. Insisting on a point of view doesn't make it more true.



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 28-Mar-2006 at 19:49
"With that background one can perhaps guess" in Neanderthals but one has no reasons to think in Sapiens that didn't even existed then most likely would be there.

They find tools that are simmilar to other tools associated to Neanderthal people in a time when our ancestors were still forming as species... what are they going to think?

It could be the yeti, naturally.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 29-Mar-2006 at 00:01

They gonna keep wondering - because the enigmatic discoveries here reffered - have led leading antropologists to seriously question the present paradigms, based on the OoA-theory. 

Thus I presented these repports - in due order,  so that the readers of this forum-thread should know about them, rather than not.  Inbetween I state what they all point to, - in terms of Nordic and North-European origin. Which are imminently relevant to any adequate analyzis concerning the possible genesis of IE man.

These findings are new facts. Your rabulations are all based on the old/well-known theories. What do you really KNOW about the time-line of Homo Sapies? How much history of science have you studied in order to understand the origin and true basis of these time-lines? In other words; what is the qualitative proofs for h.s.sapiens being 150.000 Yrs? Where are the references of the three independant, double-checked lab-works establishing this time-line? And what are your proof that no older remain of h.s.s. lays hidden around somewhere? How can you exclude such a possibility - by bluntly stating that H.s.s. did not exist - before he showed up in the Levant some 90.000 yrs ago.

Two example more - could possibly make you understand the right question - at least.

In the summer of 2000, when the world press arrived in Sydney for the Olympics - the Australians gave them a dossier on Australian history, starting with the Aboriginals. There they explained that only a year prior to the games a team of Australian antropologers and archologist had completed a six year project - concluding that the oldest site with Aborginal Yeti-items were TL-dated to 140.000 yrs BP.

35 years ago Virginnia Steen-McIntyre, Dr. of Geology, repported a discovery of arrow-heads, tusks and animal bones in the geological strata of Valsequillo Bassin. In 1967 already. 11 years later she was as sure as sure could be - and she went on to publish the evidences - even if they were "way out of the ordinary"; namely 240.000-360.000 years old.  

Mainstream science were shocked. "Horrendously incredible, off course. "Nonsense. Utter garbage. Dangerously misleading of the public. Deceptive!" Etc., etc. Thus she was sacked from her position, and banned among the leading universities - even if she was one of Anericas top ten geologists - only a year before. And those sackers - defending their positions and salaries first - are the ones you trust, unto fundamental proportions?!   http://www.mexicanfootprints.co.uk/ - http://www.mexicanfootprints.co.uk/

At the end of the day you need to explain your frame of reference by yourself.  Then how are you incorporating;

1) The 130-140.000 years old Yetis of Australia and Tasmania? As erectus, heidelbegensis or sapiens?

2) The 40.000 years old Amerindians? Their 340.000 years old ancestors?

What have Dr. Wells told you about this - and where does he place them demograpically?

 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 03:01
Mutations or Malformations? 
 
A paper in The New England Journal of Medicine written by Duane Gish, Ph.D. (Institute for Creation Research, El Cajun, CA) may help to clearify MaJu's annoying confusion over the previous argumetns from this poster.
 
The Human Tail
Duane Gish, Ph.D. - Excerpt

An article entitled "Evolution and the Human Tail" by Dr. Fred D. Ledley appeared in the May 20, 1982, issue of The New England Journal of Medicine. The publication of this article apparently served as the source of a whale of a tale, for newspaper articles based on Ledley's publication appeared all over the United States.
 
Malformations may possibly be due to the expression of genes inherited from distant ancestors but long suppressed, one can think of interesting suggestions. For example, some human females are born with mammary glands under the armpits.
 
Some human females are born with mammary glands in the groin region. Mammary glands normally occur in the groin region of some whales and goats. Does that mean that human females still possess genes for mammary glands in the groin region that have been inherited from a whale or goat ancestor? 

J.C.K Rijsbosch notes that M. Bartels had collected 116 reports of "tail" formation in humans. In cases where the sex was reported, 52 were males and 16 were females. If the caudal appendage represents a back mutation to an ancestral state, the human male must thus be somewhat closer to his monkey ancestor than the female since the condition occurs three times more frequently in males than in females!

Warkany reports that while most persons with caudal appendages showed normal general development. How can evolutionary theory and modern gentics help us explain that? 

http://www.icr.org/index.php?module=articles&action=view&ID=210 - http://www.icr.org/index.php?module=articles&action=view &ID=210

 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 03:06

The Human Genetics

“Humbling” was the prevalent adjective used by the scientific teams and the media to describe the principal finding – that the human genome contains not the anticipated 100,000 - 140,000 genes (the stretches of DNA that direct the production of amino-acids and proteins) but only some 30,000+ -- little more than double the 13,601 genes of a fruit fly and barely fifty percent more than the roundworm’s 19,098. What a comedown from the pinnacle of the genomic Tree of Life!

Moreover, there was hardly any uniqueness to the human genes. They are comparative to not the presumed 95 percent but to almost 99 percent of the chimpanzees, and 70 percent of the mouse. Human genes, with the same functions, were found to be identical to genes of other vertebrates, as well as invertebrates, plants, fungi, even yeast. The findings not only confirmed that there was one source of DNA for all life on Earth, but also enabled the scientists to trace the evolutionary process – how more complex organisms evolved, genetically, from simpler ones, adopting at each stage the genes of a lower life form to create a more complex higher life form – culminating with Homo sapiens.

But; Darwinian evolution relies on random point mutations to produce evolved organisms. As mathematician David Belinski points out, Darwinian theories appear far too weak to have brought about the remarkable structures evident in living creatures. If one assumes that all life arose out of random generations of proteins then there’s a problem.

First of all, every known example of genetic mutation either produces no noticeable change or causes death (or in rare cases undoes the mistake of a past mutation). Yet, Darwinian evolution relies on random point mutations creating lots of biological advantages. The ratio of useful proteins to possible random proteins is 1:10500. Therefore, barring incredible luck, it would take about 10500 trials to produce one useful protein when a cell needs a minimum of one to two thousand proteins. Hence, life appeared on earth (and evolved) far too quickly for the present timelines - based on Darwinian theory of evolution - to be completely correct.

http://serendip.brynmawr.edu/biology/b103/f01/web1/baird.html - http://serendip.brynmawr.edu/biology/b103/f01/web1/baird.htm l

------------------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------

 

Tropic Origin - Arctic Culture

A very important point in case is raised by cell-biologist Stephen Rothman, pin-pointing that adaptive qualities belong to organisms, not genes. It’s the animal that must cope with jungle, desert or ocean, not the genome tucked away in its cozy nuclear compartment. Darwinian evolution makes sense because it places the organism, not DNA, at the center of the action.

"Neo-Darwinism" - on the other hand - is reductionistic. As with machines, the most easy way to understand an organism is to “reduce” it — level it, you might say — recasting it in terms of its parts. Then, in turn, they are “reduced” to their separate parts, and describes as parts. Then the overall functioning do not require an explanation - because once the exact nature of the parts and their interactions is accounted for, the whole picture automatically falls into place.

Evolution exists, but pinning down timelines is complicated and difficult. Moreover,  the basic understanding of genetics is still fresh and incomplete. Thus we need to be very careful about drawing conclusive answers about the causes, as well as the structure and its effects - concerning the human genome. Concluding time-lines, speciation and possible locations and migrations of different (etnic) genotypes - based on bio-chemistry alone - is nothing but premature. 

To establish relevant time-lines we are still entirely dependant on archeological results  - and the adquate dating, respectively. These dating-techniques are, per se, a pretty new and still not well confirmed - although they are improving. Consequently we still don't have no simple or absolute timelines to neither the origin of man, nor the orgin of the respective etnicities. Besides the classical etnology, the new archeological evidence and their proximate dating.

Thus there are no scientific basis for cathegoric conclusions regarding the origin of man - as there are no conclusive evidents about the time or place for the genesis of the Eurasian populations. Except for the plain and obvious demographic fact that they have adapted to the arctic hemisphere - both physically and culturally - and the massive amount of archeological sites that have thouroughly established that this happened well before the end of ice-time. 

There are no reason to let outdated theories, etnic interests, twisted politics or fundamental convictions stand in the way of that reality. 


 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 03:40

 

Europe's Oldest Civilisation

11 June 2005, Saturday.

By David Keys
The Independent

Archaeologists have discovered Europe's oldest civilisation, a network of dozens of temples, 2,000 years older than Stonehenge and the Pyramids.

More than 150 gigantic monuments have been located beneath the fields and cities of modern-day Germany, Austria and Slovakia. They were built 7,000 years ago, between 4800BC and 4600BC.

Their discovery, revealed today by The Independent, will revolutionise the study of prehistoric Europe, where an appetite for monumental architecture was thought to have developed later than in Mesopotamia and Egypt.

In all, more than 150 temples have been identified. Constructed of earth and wood, they had ramparts and palisades that stretched for up to half a mile. They were built by a religious people who lived in communal longhouses up to 50 metres long, grouped around substantial villages. Evidence suggests their economy was based on cattle, sheep, goat and pig farming.

Their civilisation seems to have died out after about 200 years and the recent archaeological discoveries are so new that the temple building culture does not even have a name yet.

Excavations have been taking place over the past few years - and have triggered a re-evaluation of similar, though hitherto mostly undated, complexes identified from aerial photographs throughout central Europe.

Archaeologists are now beginning to suspect that hundreds of these very early monumental religious centres, each up to 150 metres across, were constructed across a 400-mile swath of land in what is now Austria, the Czech Republic, Slovakia, and eastern Germany.

The most complex excavated so far - located inside the city of Dresden - consisted of an apparently sacred internal space surrounded by two palisades, three earthen banks and four ditches.

The monuments seem to be a phenomenon associated exclusively with a period of consolidation and growth that followed the initial establishment of farming cultures in the centre of the continent.

It is possible that the newly revealed early Neolithic monument phenomenon was the consequence of an increase in the size of - and competition between - emerging Neolithic tribal or pan-tribal groups, arguably Europe's earliest mini-states.

After a relatively brief period - perhaps just one or two hundred years - either the need or the socio-political ability to build them disappeared, and monuments of this scale were not built again until the Middle Bronze Age, 3,000 years later. Why this monumental culture collapsed is a mystery.

The archaeological investigation into these vast Stone Age temples over the past three years has also revealed several other mysteries. First, each complex was only used for a few generations - perhaps 100 years maximum. Second, the central sacred area was nearly always the same size, about a third of a hectare. Third, each circular enclosure ditch - irrespective of diameter - involved the removal of the same volume of earth. In other words, the builders reduced the depth and/or width of each ditch in inverse proportion to its diameter, so as to always keep volume (and thus time spent) constant .

Archaeologists are speculating that this may have been in order to allow each earthwork to be dug by a set number of special status workers in a set number of days - perhaps to satisfy the ritual requirements of some sort of religious calendar.

The multiple bank, ditch and palisade systems "protecting" the inner space seem not to have been built for defensive purposes - and were instead probably designed to prevent ordinary tribespeople from seeing the sacred and presumably secret rituals which were performed in the "inner sanctum" .

The investigation so far suggests that each religious complex was ritually decommissioned at the end of its life, with the ditches, each of which had been dug successively, being deliberately filled in.

"Our excavations have revealed the degree of monumental vision and sophistication used by these early farming communities to create Europe's first truly large scale earthwork complexes," said the senior archaeologist, Harald Staeuble of the Saxony state government's heritage department, who has been directing the archaeological investigations. Scientific investigations into the recently excavated material are taking place in Dresden.

The people who built the huge circular temples were the descendants of migrants who arrived many centuries earlier from the Danube plain in what is now northern Serbia and Hungary. The temple-builders were pastoralists, controlling large herds of cattle, sheep and goats as well as pigs. They made tools of stone, bone and wood, and small ceramic statues of humans and animals.

They manufactured substantial amounts of geometrically decorated pottery, and they lived in large longhouses in substantial villages.
One village complex and temple at Aythra, near Leipzig, covers an area of 25 hectares. Two hundred longhouses have been found there. The population would have been up to 300 people living in a highly organised settlement of 15 to 20 very large communal buildings.

 

From: http://www.novinite.com/view_news.php?id=48570



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 03:41

Rebuilding Germany's Temple of

the Sun

 

Ancient farmers may have used the observatory to check the seasons

Ancient farmers may have used the observatory to check the seasons

A project to faithfully reconstruct a 7,000 year-old solar observatory, the oldest of its kind in Europe, began this week at Goseck in the German state of Saxony.

 

The reconstruction, which is estimated to cost a total of 100,000 euros ($122,830) at its completion, should be finished by the end of the year and the restored observatory will join the growing list of increasingly popular "Sky Way" attractions of ancient sites related to the study of astronomy.

 

The observatory was first discovered in 1991 when the 75 meter diameter circular outer ring was unearthed by archeologists after an aerial photograph revealed the site.

 

The observatory sits next to the small town of Goseck in Saxony-Anhalt in eastern GermanyBildunterschrift: The observatory sits next to the small town of Goseck in Saxony-Anhalt in eastern Germany

 

A good 12 years later, the team of experts under the direction of Professor Francois Bertemes uncovered the main hall area which led them to believe that this was a major find.

 

An insight into the life of ancient farmers

 

They were right. The observatory was not only the largest of its kind on the continent and an important discovery in the quest to understand ancient astronomical exploration but it gave the archeologists further insight into the spiritual-religious world of Europe's first farmers.

 

The observatory is taking shape againBildunterschrift: Großansicht des Bildes mit der Bildunterschrift:  The observatory is taking shape againThe sun was worshipped as the bringer of life and the orchestrator of the changing seasons and the observatory may have had played a part in the farmers' understanding of nature and crop growth.

 

Experts say that the southeast gate of the observatory corresponds to the exact point the sun rose at the beginning of the winter solstice on Dec. 21 almost 7,000 years ago. The southwest gate is believed to be the corresponding point to the sundown on that date.

 

An area rich in astronomical finds

 

The sky disc of Nebra  

 The sky disc of Nebra

 

 

Its discovery is also significant due to the fact it is situated only 23 kilometers from the place where the 3,600 year-old sky disc of Nebra was discovered in 2002, an example of one of the earliest astronomical representations of the night sky.

 

The solar observatory, situated in an area rich in ancient heritage sites in Saxony-Anhalt is estimated to have been originally built sometime around 5,000 years B.C.



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 04:01
http://www.mythicalireland.com/ancientsites/stonehenge/irelandstonehenge.html - http://www.mythicalireland.com/ancientsites/stonehenge/irela ndstonehenge.html

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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 05:09
1. You want to imagine Sapiens where there must be Neanderthals... fine. Just don't put the blame on me but on your hot head.

2. The mammal apendages you mention are false and the article you link to "document" it talks about something else.

3. There are other topics to disuss evolution theory: I'm sure you will findthem amusing - and others will find you too. It's irrelevant for our matter.

4. The "temples" you mention have been known for long, though not in the aboundant numbers they are now. They belong to the Danubian Neolithic, and have most likely nothing to do with the developement of Germanic nations as such (these areas were Celtic some 2100 years ago).


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 30-Mar-2006 at 23:27

1. Not my imagination. Not even my suggestion. But one I find well worth considering -  see my introductory reply. I think we all understand that you dont find it relevant. Your thoughts about it are overwhelmingly exposed already. The pics above still tells whose body.temperature -

2.  The mammal apendages was a curious comment to your former report from "Nowhereland". My point was that the article argues that the present timeline of evolution if the higher mammals are way off - if evolutionary genetics is to explain the origin and speciation of primates.

3. Unless you find the article seriously relevant - indicating that the human ancestors are a cross-breed between a male monkey and a female dolphin, whale or goat. According to the present genetical context...

Please feel free to further that case wherever you FEEL like...

4. Known for long? The article above were posted last year.

 A) It is no more than a handfull of years since the megalths of Northern Europe were duely mapped - giving an outline overview. The word "civilisation" was not used before Renfrew published his monumnental works 2000 and 2002.  The understanding of this complex-matter is still growing - quite rapidly - as old information is reconsidered, dated and understood, while new sites are discovered and excavated.  We have MUCH more to learn here - before we are anywhere near the conclusive matters. Thus it is obviously premature to conclude the way you do.

Besides (quote) "... known for a long time already", isn't that much of an argument really. The sun have been known even longer and our understanding about it is still tiny. But I know all about it - I even know that it always shine, - yes,yes, yes - even when it rains.

B) I guess you have a waterproof line of evidence that NONE of these megaliths were ever touched by "germans", but by "celts". I guess you have Caesar's and Aenid*s word for that? Or Jordanes, perhaps?

So where did the "German" tribes occur - and when did they arrive in "Germania" - accordong to your opinion?! I guessl you can present a "Celtic genotype", genuinly different from a consequent "German genotype" to substantiate your imaginative claims.

---

Meanwhile I migth see you jogging, between "Pan-Celtia" and "The Eleusian Fields". Have a Snickers sometime.

 

 



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Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 31-Mar-2006 at 08:17
Yes, known for long: those "enclosures", already considered temples or ritual places, were known at least in the 90s, in some isolated places. I remamber a handful of them in different places of Central Europe.

What is new is that there are so many of them, all built by the same pattern, indicating a clear spiritual unity of early Danubians or Western Linear Pottery culture.

The word civilization is probably abusive unless you show me the remains of the cities. But press loves grandious terms.

...

These people were not IEs most likely - unless you favor the Renfrew hypothesis for the expansion of IEs. Most data indicates against it and in this forum has yet to appear a solid defender of such argumentation.

As I think that the Gimbutas paradigm is the valid one, IEs were then still in their embrionary status in the Volga area, and, therefore, neither Germans nor Celts, who weren't still formed, nor any other IE speaking person has anythng to do with that.

Anyhow, the first IE people that we find historically living in that region are Celts. Germans being then located in Lower Germany and Scandinavia. Yet you just can't jump from Linear Pottery to La Tène ignoring several milennia (c. 4000-400 BCE vanished! ) of major ethnic and cultural change.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Odin
Date Posted: 10-Apr-2006 at 11:07

This Boreas guy is good for a laugh.

The only people who adhere to Multiregionalism nowdays are racists, and cranks like Wolpoff who ignore very good genetic evidence and instead rely on skelatal "evidence" that I consider a case of seeing what they want to see. Multiregionalism also goes against evolutionary biology and population genetics, The Old World was too big for pre-modern hominids to stay one species. The mtDNA found in Neandertal remains show that the African and Eurasian populations of H. heidelbergensis had already become isolated into  pre-Neandertal (in Eurasia) and pre-modern (in Africa) populations respectively by 500,000 years ago, the populations were reproductively isolated from then on.

The "mongoloid" features of the Sami don't seem that strong, prehaps their features are the result of thouroughly caucasian Finno-Ugric speakers migrating northward from central and eastern Europe at the end of the last ice age mixing with "mongoloid" arctic hunters and fishermen from Siberia (the same expansion of arctic people that gave rise to the Inuit, prehaps?).

Modern Germanic people are decendants of mesolithic Finnic people that "converted" to Indo-European religion, customs, and language. The sound shift known as Grimm's Law may be a result of Finnic speakers taking up Late PIE. Proto-Germanic also seems to have taken up a huge amount of Finnic vocabulary, king, knight, north, south, east, west, and sea, for example, all seem to be derived from Finnic languages (look up "Germanic Substrate Hypothesis" on Wiki for more info).



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"Of the twenty-two civilizations that have appeared in history, nineteen of them collapsed when they reached the moral state the United States is in now."

-Arnold J. Toynbee


Posted By: Maju
Date Posted: 10-Apr-2006 at 20:52
Finnish peoples show a male ascendancy quite different from other Europeans, except Baltics and Russians that share it in lesser manner. It's considered an Uralic marker. But by the female side and overall genetics, they seem pretty much Euros like the rest (except Lapps).

Meanwhile Germans and Scandinavians don't have those male (Y-chr) types, meaning a different genesis. They have the types that identify Westerners and Easterners but not the Uralic ones, which are restricted the regions East of the Baltic (and Lappland).

Also, as you will see in the topic on European tongues, I don't think that Uralic can be associated to Native Eastern Eruopeans but rather that it came from the Urals area. I think Eastern Europeans spoke maybe some Caucasic tongue and the Scandinavians spoke then either Atlantic languages (Magdalenian) or one of those Caucasic (Eastern Gravettian) ones.


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NO GOD, NO MASTER!


Posted By: Odin
Date Posted: 10-Apr-2006 at 21:41

Originally posted by Maju

Finnish peoples show a male ascendancy quite different from other Europeans, except Baltics and Russians that share it in lesser manner. It's considered an Uralic marker. But by the female side and overall genetics, they seem pretty much Euros like the rest (except Lapps).

Meanwhile Germans and Scandinavians don't have those male (Y-chr) types, meaning a different genesis. They have the types that identify Westerners and Easterners but not the Uralic ones, which are restricted the regions East of the Baltic (and Lappland).

Also, as you will see in the topic on European tongues, I don't think that Uralic can be associated to Native Eastern Eruopeans but rather that it came from the Urals area. I think Eastern Europeans spoke maybe some Caucasic tongue and the Scandinavians spoke then either Atlantic languages (Magdalenian) or one of those Caucasic (Eastern Gravettian) ones.

The problem is that there doesn't seem to be much difference in physical difference between Finns and, say, Norwegians. Also, as I posted in the Finno-Ugric thread, Uralic may not have a tree pattern like IE, but be like a braided river, with the Y marker being from Ugrians moving west into Finnic territory, with Finnic and Ugric speakers becoming more similar to each other through borrowing (and Lapps and Samoyeds switching to Uralic tonges from previous languages). I'm guessing Germans are different genetically from scandinavians since thier ancestors were part of the Madelanian sphere of influence, eventually becoming the central European Celts when the IEians came through, and then were Germanized when the Proto-West Germanic speakers moved into the region during the classical period (I remeber reading that the cultural transition zone between Germanic and Celtic was quite wide, maybe representing recent Germanization).



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"Of the twenty-two civilizations that have appeared in history, nineteen of them collapsed when they reached the moral state the United States is in now."

-Arnold J. Toynbee



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