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Was the Byzantine Empire mainly a Hellenic Empire?

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: Ancient Mediterranean and Europe
Forum Discription: Greece, Macedon, Rome and other cultures such as Celtic and Germanic tribes
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=4082
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Topic: Was the Byzantine Empire mainly a Hellenic Empire?
Posted By: strategos
Subject: Was the Byzantine Empire mainly a Hellenic Empire?
Date Posted: 20-Jun-2005 at 23:57
I was looking at the FYROMians main website, quite humorous i might say,  and I found an article on how the Byzantine Empire was not a Hellenic Empire. I know it ruled over diverse people, but was it not mainly Hellenic at heart? What are your thoughts?

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http://theforgotten.org/intro.html



Replies:
Posted By: TheodoreFelix
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 00:17
In many ways yes. In reality it had been so since the Roman times. The Romans never really Romanized lands in the east. Greek was continually spoken as the manin language. Since the Byzantine Empire was an empire that focused on the eastern part, it made sense that it was a hellenistic empire. A multi-ethnic hellenistic empire. I believe it still followed Roman law and the peopel there always referre to themselves as Romans, if I am correct.

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Posted By: Perseas
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 04:06

Lets see!! Its an undeniable fact that the official language of administration at the begining was the latin language, even though i have read people in their daily lifes were greek-speakers.

Afterwards, the official administratrion language was envolved from a kinda mixture of Latin and Greek during Justinianus to a fully adoption of greek language as predominant, during Heraclius time.

The people indeed were calling themselves Romaioi *Romans in greek language* which had already become a synonym for Hellene . The Franks from the 8th century, were calling the empire as "Greek empire" but its from around 11th century and afterwards, that even high rank officials were considering themselves as greeks. I do believe in the end, the empire had been transformed to a greek orthodox state.



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A mathematician is a person who thinks that if there are supposed to be three people in a room, but five come out, then two more must enter the room in order for it to be empty.


Posted By: Raider
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 04:20

 

I think byzantinologist Louis Berhier gave the best definition:

The Byzantine Empire was Roman in traditions, Greek in culture, and Oriental in the practice of power.



Posted By: Murtaza
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 05:20

So 1/3 greek?

himmm

 



Posted By: GENERAL PARMENION
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 05:21
I think there is no doubt that it was a Hellenic Empire.

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"There is no doubt, that Macedonians were Greeks."
(Robin Lane Fox "Historian-Author" In Interview with newspaper TO BHMA)



Posted By: Midas
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 05:27
They were not totally Greek... But empire was Greek. It was like Alexander's Empire. So i think it was Hellenic...


Posted By: Belisarius
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 08:55
It was not a Hellenic empire until the rule of Heraclius. He was the first to drop the Latin titles of "Augustus" and "imperator", instead calling himself by a the Greek title of "basileus". He replaced Latin with Greek as the empire's official language. Also, it was during his time that the empire contracted to the Greek heartland, losing the predominantly Semitic Levant and Egypt.

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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 09:04

When you have a nation like Byzantium, which at its height ruled an area from Spain to the Euphrates and from the Crimea to the Upper Nile, then of course the Empire isn't going to be completely Greek. The British Empire in India made full use of existing Indian mediums of power and means of administration to rule their vast possession, but this hardly means the very ethos of that Empire did not centre on the cultural power of Britain. Likewise, while Byzantium was a multi-ethnic nation for much of its history it still centred on a Greek speaking Orthodox Christian ethos which saw its government as the legitimate successor of the previous Roman rulers.

For anyone to claim Byzantium was not at its core a Hellenistic or Greek Empire, especially from the 7th century onwards, is pure nonesense. The people of Byzantium called themselves Rhomaioi (Romans), not because they believed they were Italians but because they believed they belonged to a specific ideology, that of being a citizen of the legitimate Roman state. That they were citizens of such a state is true, they were the only nation in the world who had a direct line of rulers who traced their succession in unbroken lineage all the way to Augustus.

The Byzantine state was, of course, influenced by its Roman past. The lands of Byzantium were under Roman rule prior to Justinian for over 500 years, and yet this was not enough to change the language, culture and heritage of the Hellenic people in those lands. A Roman bureaucratic apparatus might be attached to these lands, the laws and language of government might be Latin, yet the Hellenic element of its culture persevered in spite of all that. From the time of Heraclius onwards Byzantium did not even put up the pretence of being culturally Roman (though it definitely preserved the ideology of the Roman Imperium, distinguish between the culture and ideology). It was a Greek speaking nation, it had its own original and distinct type of national organisation having replaced the Roman prefactures with Byzantine Themata, it had a national Orthodox Church which conducted liturgy in Greek. It also proudly drew its heritage from the Classical and Hellenistic age of Ancient Greece, one read of Anna Komnena's Alexiad and all the references to the classical Greek past will give you a good taste of what they considered their heritage.

From time to time non-Greeks would occupy positions of prominence (even Emperorship) within Byzantine society. Being at the cultural cross-roads of the world, it was also natural Byzantium engaged in much cultural exchange and interaction with their neighbours. OK, so Leo III was from as far away as Northern Syria. Because he sits on the throne does that mean the entire ethnic composition, religious structure, cultural heritage, spoken language, and every other facet of cultural identity is suddenly now Northern Syrian? Obviously not. Even Justinian, with his Roman mind and grandeur, still had to bow to the necessities of the day and learn to speak Greek (although rather badly according to Procopius). All in all, the very ethos and base of Byzantine society was Hellenic. From time to time a foreigner might be prominent in Byzantine society in this multi-ethnic Empire, but the true bulk of Byzantine heritage was a Hellenic one.



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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 21-Jun-2005 at 17:25
Originally posted by Constantine XI

From time to time non-Greeks would occupy positions of prominence (even Emperorship) within Byzantine society. Being at the cultural cross-roads of the world, it was also natural Byzantium engaged in much cultural exchange and interaction with their neighbours. ........ From time to time a foreigner might be prominent in Byzantine society in this multi-ethnic Empire, but the true bulk of Byzantine heritage was a Hellenic one.



You've said it all, I just want to mention a thing or two.
I might be wrong here, but I believe Hellenism in Byzantine society was not so much an ethnic, but a cultural concept. As long the Byzantine citizen adopted the very foundations of the Byzantine Empire, Christianity and the traditions of Greek and Roman antiquity in a Christianised form, and the idea of the Byzantine State as the worldly and spiritual cornerstone of human civilisation, the place of birth or ethnic identity had only a minor significance. One became a Byzantine not by the accident of birth, but through the willingness to serve its purpose.
Thus it became easy and frequent that people who did not belong to the ethnic core groups of the Empire would be accepted and elevated to high positions in the Empire, and on many occasions enriched the Hellenic culture through various influences.
The concept that state and ethnicity are identical, is a relatively modern concept, and would have been alien to the Byzantines, as indeed it was to many other Empires of the period.
The Byzantine Empire was Hellenic throughout most of its duration, but it should not be understood by the ethnic definition of the term.


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Posted By: Beylerbeyi
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 05:37

Byzantines were Greek (at least after the 7th century or so), just as the Ottomans were Turks.   



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Posted By: Raider
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 06:00

 

Of course the question is the same again. Who is Greek?

A population of the Byzantine Empire was culturaly hellenized. This sole fact is enough? (I use the term Byzantine Empire after the arab conquest, and Eastern Roman Empire before.)

 



Posted By: Yiannis
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 06:38

I guess it's a matter of point of view. If you consider bloodlines as a mark of nationality (a term that was in any case not applicable back then) it's impossible to say for sure.

If "nationality" is an inherited, cultural characteristic, then probably yes.



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The basis of a democratic state is liberty. Aristotle, Politics

Those that can give up essential liberty to obtain a temporary safety deserve neither liberty nor safety. Benjamin Franklin


Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 09:57

Since the 6th century AD Greek was the official language of the Byzantine Empire. The culture was Greek and not Roman (which was formed by the Greek one). There are many references of the people called Greeks.

Constantinople was the cradle of Hellenism and The Fall of Constantinople was a Greek defeat by the Ottomans.

The fact that the Byzantine Empire was a Hellenic Empire is unquestionable amongst historians.

It was the second Greek Empire of history after the Macedonian Empire.



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: GENERAL PARMENION
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 16:00

Anyway , what is this Greek - Roman dispute taking place for?

As far as i am concerned , even the original Roman Empire was infact a  " Greek" Empire aswell.

The Romans borowed our culture , religion , architecture e.t.c. The Romans where a continuation of the Greek civilization. They where " Greeks " in a way. Greek and Roman are the same thing.



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"There is no doubt, that Macedonians were Greeks."
(Robin Lane Fox "Historian-Author" In Interview with newspaper TO BHMA)



Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 22-Jun-2005 at 17:35
Originally posted by GENERAL PARMENION

Anyway , what is this Greek - Roman dispute taking place for?

As far as i am concerned , even the original Roman Empire was infact a  " Greek" Empire aswell.

The Romans borowed our culture , religion , architecture e.t.c. The Romans where a continuation of the Greek civilization. They where " Greeks " in a way. Greek and Roman are the same thing.

Totally agreed

Besides the Ottoman Empire was Turkish although it was multi-ethnic and included the ex-Byzantine region.



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: Raider
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 03:32

"The Romans borowed our culture , religion , architecture e.t.c. The Romans where a continuation of the Greek civilization. They where " Greeks " in a way. Greek and Roman are the same thing."

I disagree. Romans borrowed many thing, but their culture diffred from the Greek's. This was one of the major problem of the empire. Romanisation in the west, and hellenization in the east. This eas the root of the eventual division of the empire.



Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 03:57
Originally posted by GENERAL PARMENION

Anyway , what is this Greek - Roman dispute taking place for?


As far as i am concerned , even the original Roman Empire was infact a " Greek" Empire aswell.


The Romans borowed our culture , religion , architecture e.t.c. The Romans where a continuation of the Greek civilization. They where " Greeks " in a way. Greek and Roman are the same thing.



You have a very simplistic view on how cultures evolve.
Civilisations don't "borrow", they are influenced by and interact with others, they adopt and further develop new ideas and technologies, and exchange them.
This is not the space to discuss the influences on classical Hellenistic culture, but you will find they "borrowed" quite a lot of ideas from other civilisations.
Of course the Roman empire was heavily influenced by Hellenistic culture, but to deny that had their very own distinct Roman culture that was very different from any other, is historical nonsense.
If you apply the three criteria "culture, religion, architecture" to your alleged sequence of Hellenistic culture, however it must be said, that the Middle or Late Byzantine Empire shared very little with the Classical Greek culture, neither religion nor architecture, and culture only in a very evolved form.
Language and alphabet maybe, but the latter one was "borrowed" from the Phoenicians anyway!


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Posted By: Morgoth
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 04:34

We must remember that the term "Byzantine Empire" is really just an academic one, though undoubtably a useful one.

The way I discribe the Byzantine Empire is thus - it was the Greek Christian, Eastern Roman Empire.

Culturally and linguistically, the empire was very much Greek. It was also, however, Roman.



Posted By: GENERAL PARMENION
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 13:58
As i said before , Greek and Roman turned out to mean the same thing. Bare in mind that at the time of the Byzantine Empire all of its citizens where refered as " Roman citizens ". True , but ONLY Greeks called themselves Romans . A " Roman " was a synonym for " Greek ". Bulgarians , slavs in general , Armenians e.t.c. never called themselves Romans . They where simply citizens of the Roman Empire.

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"There is no doubt, that Macedonians were Greeks."
(Robin Lane Fox "Historian-Author" In Interview with newspaper TO BHMA)



Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 14:36
Originally posted by GENERAL PARMENION

. A " Roman " was a synonym for " Greek ". Bulgarians , slavs in general , Armenians e.t.c. never called themselves Romans .


Unless, of course, they had become Emperors themselves, like:

Heraclius(610-641) whose father was Armenian
Leo III the Isaurian (717-741)
Leo V the Armenian (813-820)
Basil I (867-886) of Armenian/Macedonian descent

to name a few.


And, surprise, surprise, there even was a German Byzantine Emperor:

Tiberius III (698-705), a German army officer called Apsimar

The term "Romaioi" did not refer to ethnic , but to cultural Greeks, citizens and Emperors of the East-Roman Empire, be they ethnic Greeks, or Armenians, or Bulgars, or even Germans.
And if you like it not, today's Greece was only a very small and not even a very important part of an Empire that was more "multi-cultural" than any of today's nations will hopefully become.






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Posted By: GENERAL PARMENION
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 14:45
You obviously know nothing about the Byzantine Empire and the " Greco - Roman " issue.

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"There is no doubt, that Macedonians were Greeks."
(Robin Lane Fox "Historian-Author" In Interview with newspaper TO BHMA)



Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 15:03
Originally posted by GENERAL PARMENION

You obviously know nothing about the Byzantine Empire and the " Greco - Roman " issue.


That why we've hired you for AE!
So, please, please, explain to us how the terms "Greek" and "Romaioi" can be applied to the multi-ethnic and multi-cultural character of the Byzantine Empire.


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Posted By: GENERAL PARMENION
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 15:07

Originally posted by GENERAL PARMENION

As i said before , Greek and Roman turned out to mean the same thing. Bare in mind that at the time of the Byzantine Empire all of its citizens where refered as " Roman citizens ". True , but ONLY Greeks called themselves Romans . A " Roman " was a synonym for " Greek ". Bulgarians , slavs in general , Armenians e.t.c. never called themselves Romans . They where simply citizens of the Roman Empire.

I dont want to repeat myself.



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"There is no doubt, that Macedonians were Greeks."
(Robin Lane Fox "Historian-Author" In Interview with newspaper TO BHMA)



Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 15:33
Originally posted by GENERAL PARMENION


I dont want to repeat myself.




Let me try again.
In 212 emperor Caracalla decreed that all free citizens of the Roman Empire, regardless of their ethnic identity had the right to call themselves "Romans".
As after the collapse of the Western-roman Empire, the Eastern half quite rightly regarded themselves as the only rightful heirs of the Roman Empire, and continued to call themselves "Romans" and with the gradual Hellenisation of the Empire the term was adopted into Greek as "Romaioi".
But the term "Romaioi" was a political one, not an ethnic, indicated the affiliation with the idea of the Empire, and not with a particular national group.

That over the centuries the B.E. was reduced to a territory that allowed for a identity between ethnicity and state, namely today's Greece, might explain why the term "Romaioi" eventually became synonymous with the population of Greece, and why the Turks called the Greeks "Rum".
The original meaning however was a different one.

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Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 19:41

That's true for the name "Romans". But it was used basically for the Greeks "Romioi".

The region of modern Greece was not important for the Empire? It was one of the vital regions like modern Syria for example. Besides the suppositive Greek field extended to Constantinople and Minor Asia.

Again offensive language. "If you like it or not", "That's why we hired you in AE" etc    Everyone who claims to be an expert post something and considers himself undisputed. 



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: Mosquito
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 20:32
I would say it was more greek but roman influences were strong. Basically the Greeks were living under the rules of roman law, using legal institutions invented by the best roman lawyers. Corpus Iuris Civilis was one of the greatest achievements of Byzantium.


Posted By: Morgoth
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 23:14

Of course the empire was multi-ethnic as one would expect given its size and location. To me this seems of very little importance. What is important is that the Roman Empire (for we must never forget that it was the Roman Empire) became linguistically and culturally Greek. Also, ethnicity is primarily defined by culture and languge anyway, so that seems a moot point. The aristocracy was Greek and the state became Greek, thus the Empire was Greek.



Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 23-Jun-2005 at 23:49
The term Roman was originally adopted in order to denounce the pagan past. While it is very true that the Byzantine empire was a multi-ethnic one, by no means does this mean that any of it's subjects ceased to identify and support their own ethnicity.

The Byzantine Hellines demanded and actually managed quite early to be distinguished from the other population of the empire with the term "".
There were actually two terms that described the population of the empire.

"=Romioi" and "=Romaioi" were used but there was one difference. The first was created in order to indicate generally the Hellinic Orthodox members of the "=genos"= (gender,blood), while the second to indicate the Orthodox Christians of the empire in general."

We actually find that the reference of a Hellinic ethnicity is continuouly reminded to part of the subjects.(the Hellinic part)
Constantine Porphyrogennitos tells us how the Slavs had attacked the Greeks, (kata ton Graikon).
George Gemistos Plethon, Anna Komnene, Michael Psellos (just to mention a few) begin to use the denounced pagan term Hellin to describe only the people of Hellinic origin.
Psellos at one time actually attacks Herodotus and names him a "philo-Persian" that dared to insult his ancestors by showing favor to the Persians.

Further proof that "=(gender,blood) was of major interest to the Hellinic population at least, are the many references to rasism toward our Christian brothers of rmenia, I recall that there is a poem by Cassiani (unfortunately don't have the title) that could be labeled "racsist" against the Armenians.

But, we must keep in mind that we are talking about a theocratic empire, where the use of the terms Hellas and Hellinas were strictly forbidden since they reminded people of their pagan past, hence we see the damnations on Orthodox Sunday. (platonic ideas, platonic teachings


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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Raider
Date Posted: 24-Jun-2005 at 07:05

 

I have consulted this question in the book Byzanz by Peter Schreiner.

According to Schreiner the term rhomanoi was used independently from nationality or ethnic groups.  Schreiner states that orthodoxy was in close relation with this term. For example jews were always excluded.



Posted By: Kenaney
Date Posted: 24-Jun-2005 at 13:04
Thats (maybe) why the Turks call the greeks somethimes "Rum".

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OUT OF LIMIT


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 25-Jun-2005 at 07:44
I think the Greeks here are confusing the term Roman in the Byzantine Empire. It wasn't used to describe Greeks, it was used to describe Christians in the Byzantine Empire. The term Greek or Hellene were considered pagan after Christianity took its hold in Europe. Therefore, Roman was used because Roman meant Christian, and Greek meant pagan. Simple as that.

But yes, the Byzantine Empire in many aspects was Greek. Not in all aspects, but in a very large portion of it. However, strangely enough, during the empire's decline, the empire began to be partially Italianized due to the increasing dominance of the Italian city-states like Venice and Genoa.


Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 26-Jun-2005 at 23:02

Of course Byzantium saw itself as the direct continuation of the Roman State, rather than a purely Greek one. An enormous amounts of what made up the Byzantine Empire were Greek, I would argue the majority of what made up Byzantium what it was was Greek. Read the journey of Liutprand of Cremona (highly amusing). When he called the Byzantine Emperor Nikephoros II Phocas Emperor of the Greeks rather than Emperor of the Romans there was uproar in the court over the disrespect. The Byzantine court would not tolerate the usage of such a term, to them it was an insult. For the Emperor of Constantinople only Emperor of the Romans was a sufficiently worthy title.

 Also look at the treaty signed under the auspices of Nikephoros I and Michael I with Charlemagne over the appropriate imperial title to be used in the wake of Charlegmagne being crowned by the Pope. It specifically, because of the Byzantine drafting, allows the Frankish ruler to be called Emperor. However, the title of the Byzantines is not Emperor but Emperor of the Romans.

All this said, the idea of being a Byzantine had less to do with ethnicity than it had to do with your religious orientation and ideology. Byzantium, much like Rome, easily integrated many peoples because being a Byzantine meant you were an Orthodox Christian, typically spoke adequate Greek and acknowledged the ruler of Constantinople as the direct successor of the Roman Emperors and accepted his primacy in the world of man.



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Posted By: GENERAL PARMENION
Date Posted: 27-Jun-2005 at 15:16

Originally posted by TheSicilianVespers

I think the Greeks here are confusing the term Roman in the Byzantine Empire. It wasn't used to describe Greeks, it was used to describe Christians in the Byzantine Empire. The term Greek or Hellene were considered pagan after Christianity took its hold in Europe. Therefore, Roman was used because Roman meant Christian, and Greek meant pagan. Simple as that.

But yes, the Byzantine Empire in many aspects was Greek. Not in all aspects, but in a very large portion of it. However, strangely enough, during the empire's decline, the empire began to be partially Italianized due to the increasing dominance of the Italian city-states like Venice and Genoa.

Wrong! Bulgarian christians , slavs or Armenian christians where not called Romans. Only Greeks where called like that.



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"There is no doubt, that Macedonians were Greeks."
(Robin Lane Fox "Historian-Author" In Interview with newspaper TO BHMA)



Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 27-Jun-2005 at 16:04

During the Byzantine campaign in Italy in 535 AD, the habitants regarded the Byzantines as the brothers who came to join them to the Eastern Empire. The Ostrogoths who had conquered Italy tried to persuade the population not to help the Byzantines stating that  they were only Graekoi conquerors and they were not the prior Romans anymore. In my opinion this fact is another proof that the Byzantine Empire was considered as a Hellenic one early enough after the division of the united Roman Empire.



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 28-Jun-2005 at 01:14
Originally posted by dorian


During the Byzantine campaign in Italy in 535 AD, the habitants regarded the Byzantines as the brothers who came to join them to the Eastern Empire. The Ostrogoths who had conquered Italy tried to persuade the population not to help the Byzantines stating that they were only Graekoi conquerors and they were not the prior Romans anymore. In my opinion this fact is another proof that the Byzantine Empire was considered as a Hellenic one early enough after the division of the united Roman Empire.


Isn't there a slight flaw in your logic?
"The Ostrogoths unsuccessfully tried to convince the indigenous Roman population that the East-Roman were Greeks and therefore an alien invader.
The Roman population however refused to acknowledge that and in the contrary regarded the East-Romans as brothers, as Romans."
What you are saying is, that a Germanic tribe called the East-Romans Greeks for propaganda purposes, whilst the Romans, who should know better, regarded them as fellow Romans. Im my books, this is not a proof for the Hellenisation of the East-Roman Empire.

Apart from that, the premise that the indigenous Roman population in Italy welcomed Belisarius' or Narses' armies with open arms, is at its best historically inaccurate.
The City of Rome and its administration switched allegiance on a few occasions, especially during the siege of Rome in 538, and so did a number of other cities during the campaigns. The Roman population basiscally regarded both the Ostrogoths and the East-Roman as foreign invaders.
In fact, this would be a far better argument for your claims.

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Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 28-Jun-2005 at 02:58

No one has actually attempted to explain, why we find the terms like "Bulgaroktonus" (Bulgr-slayer 9th cent) and the demographic measure named "epi tas Sklabinas" (on the Slavs 8th cent.), used for the already assimilated in the empire ethnic groups.
What is the purpose of using these terms when they could have easily used the term "Romaioi" that was allegedly cultural and not ethnic???

It is also interesting that Constantine Porphyrogenitus in his "De Administrando Imperio" clearly makes a seperate reference to the ethnic groups of Bulgarians, Slavs and Armenians and does not name them "Romans-Romioi".






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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Yiannis
Date Posted: 28-Jun-2005 at 03:31
Bulgarians were not subjects of the empire at that time. They were independant and a very strong adversary of Byzantium. Armenians too were sometimes part and sometimes not of the empire.

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The basis of a democratic state is liberty. Aristotle, Politics

Those that can give up essential liberty to obtain a temporary safety deserve neither liberty nor safety. Benjamin Franklin


Posted By: Phallanx
Date Posted: 28-Jun-2005 at 04:42
About the Bulgarians you're correct, seems like I missed four yrs, but with the Armenians, we'd expect a different treatment.
Since we know of Emperors of Armenian descent like Leo V, one would expect that they would "deserve" the title "Romaioi/Romioi"

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To the gods we mortals are all ignorant.Those old traditions from our ancestors, the ones we've had as long as time itself, no argument will ever overthrow, in spite of subtleties sharp minds invent.


Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 28-Jun-2005 at 06:44

Originally posted by Phallanx

About the Bulgarians you're correct, seems like I missed four yrs, but with the Armenians, we'd expect a different treatment.
Since we know of Emperors of Armenian descent like Leo V, one would expect that they would "deserve" the title "Romaioi/Romioi"

The Armenians were often also politically autonomous to Byzantium for much of their history. In a similar vein to the Bulgars, the Armenians had their own autonomous leaders, national army and language. I am speaking generally here, as for certain periods of history Armenia was annexed by Byzantium completely. But because the Armenians generally did not recognise the Byzantine Emperor as their political leader, and even at times fought against the Byzantine Empire, they could rightly be considered foreigners. Another important sticking point is that the Armenians were usually staunch monophysites, which further distinguished them from being called a people of Byzantium.



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Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 28-Jun-2005 at 08:02

Originally posted by Komnenos



Isn't there a slight flaw in your logic?
"The Ostrogoths unsuccessfully tried to convince the indigenous Roman population that the East-Roman were Greeks and therefore an alien invader.
The Roman population however refused to acknowledge that and in the contrary regarded the East-Romans as brothers, as Romans."
What you are saying is, that a Germanic tribe called the East-Romans Greeks for propaganda purposes, whilst the Romans, who should know better, regarded them as fellow Romans. Im my books, this is not a proof for the Hellenisation of the East-Roman Empire.

Apart from that, the premise that the indigenous Roman population in Italy welcomed Belisarius' or Narses' armies with open arms, is at its best historically inaccurate.
The City of Rome and its administration switched allegiance on a few occasions, especially during the siege of Rome in 538, and so did a number of other cities during the campaigns. The Roman population basiscally regarded both the Ostrogoths and the East-Roman as foreign invaders.
In fact, this would be a far better argument for your claims.

It's not the strongest proof but obviously it's a fact that indicates the greek character of the Empire even before the change of the official language which was such an important step toward the sanction of the Greekness of the Empire.



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: dorian
Date Posted: 28-Jun-2005 at 08:32

Originally posted by Phallanx


No one has actually attempted to explain, why we find the terms like "Bulgaroktonus" (Bulgr-slayer 9th cent) and the demographic measure named "epi tas Sklabinas" (on the Slavs 8th cent.), used for the already assimilated in the empire ethnic groups.
What is the purpose of using these terms when they could have easily used the term "Romaioi" that was allegedly cultural and not ethnic???

It is also interesting that Constantine Porphyrogenitus in his "De Administrando Imperio" clearly makes a seperate reference to the ethnic groups of Bulgarians, Slavs and Armenians and does not name them "Romans-Romioi".




The region of Armenians sometimes was a part of the Byzantine Empire, but generally it wasn't given that the peoples of Caucasia (Armenians, Albanians, Georgians etc) were on the side of the Byzantines and the latter tried to ally with them specially against the Persians. So, Armenians had kinda of autonomy and they couldn't be described with the classic term "Romans" or "Byzantines" 

Btw, I don't think that any of these nations (Slavs, Bulgars, Egyptians, Syrians, Palaistines etc) were called Romioi. I'm not sure for that but maybe it explains the especial use of this term.



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"We are Macedonians but we are Slav Macedonians.That's who we are!We have no connection to Alexander the Greek and his Macedonia�Our ancestors came here in the 5th and 6th century" Kiro Gligorov FYROM


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 10-Jul-2005 at 08:28

 Hi to every one , Im new to this forum, I can see that there are very interesting topics here.

 First at the topic at hand, as every one probably knows here the so called " Byzantine Empire " was called " The Eastern Roman Empire ", and reading some of these posts here, by naming this empire " Greek or Hellenic " is a false distinction, there isn't any " Byzantine"  texts claiming this empire being " Greek, Hellenic " or any other ethnic group, this empire wasn't owned by no ethnic group, espescially any modern group of people, the empire used Latin and Koine as it's standared language, it was a multi-ethnic empire, and i don't agree with the above post that Slavs, Bulgars or other groups were not included in this Empire. After the Slavic tribes settled through the Balkans including modern " Greece ", a lot of them were in service of this empire, later the Byzantines recruited Bulgars (Tatars- not to be confused with modern Bulgarians of mixed origin) in there army and settled them in the north of modern Bulgaria. On the language issue speaking Latin or Koine in this empire didn't mean that you were part of any ethnic group, all that were in service in this empire were called " good Romans" or " Romioi", even when the Turks held this region it was called " Rumelia" and its inhabitants " Rum",  even though there were various ethnic groups here they were still called by this name. Using the word "Rum" wasn't really an ethnic term but a religious one, the " Byzantine " empire was a Christian Orthodox empire, so anyone that was Christian was called a Rum, no matter there ethnic origin Serb, Greek (Romiosini), Macedonian, Bulgarian or Albanian. But from all these groups only the modern Greeks adopted it duiring Ottoman rule to be there ethnic origin. Above post stated there was " Greek " character to this empire, correct me if i'm wrong i do not remember reading the Greeks inventing the "Legion" because they were still in use duiring this empire, and the only thing left from ancient Hellas is the Koinon language, not it's ethnicity, Ethnic structure changed in the Balkans duiring the height of Roman power, a lot of modern countries in this region don't want to admit it.



Posted By: Menippos
Date Posted: 10-Jul-2005 at 09:06
I am so tired....

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Posted By: merced12
Date Posted: 11-Oct-2005 at 09:46
byzentine of course greek maybe the first period roman but next time greek

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Posted By: Mila
Date Posted: 11-Oct-2005 at 12:10
I don't understand this line of thinking at all.

The Byzantine Empire destroyed the Hellenic Empire. You can't compare a pagan empire that expanded the world's understanding of everything from democracy to science to a religious heirarchy that did it's best to smother such thought and advancement.

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Posted By: Yiannis
Date Posted: 11-Oct-2005 at 13:10
I tend to think of the Byzantine empire not as the destruction but as the continuation of the Hellenic one. More of an evolution rather than destruction.

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Those that can give up essential liberty to obtain a temporary safety deserve neither liberty nor safety. Benjamin Franklin


Posted By: Mila
Date Posted: 11-Oct-2005 at 15:04
^ I'd agree with that as well. I think of the Bosniak conversion to Islam from the Bosnian Church, etc...as an evolution, moreso than a destruction - mainly because it involves the same Bosniak people.

I wouldn't, for example, consider the founding of Croatia, Serbia, and Bosnia to be a continuation of ancient Illyria because we're not the same people who founded and developed Illyria. We of course absorbed a certain number of the Illyrian people into our own, but we're overwhelmingly a completely new "empire".


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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 11-Oct-2005 at 18:35
I think we could call Byzantium an evolution of the Hellenic people, keeping in mind the Empire was often multi-ethnic. Any nation which retains the language, urban structures, literature, political structures and original homelands and changes other details like religion could still certainly be called a continuation.

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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 12-Oct-2005 at 05:20

^ I'd agree with that as well. I think of the Bosniak conversion to Islam from the Bosnian Church, etc...as an evolution, moreso than a destruction - mainly because it involves the same Bosniak people.

I think it's the same with the Byzantine empire: the people considered themselves Roman before and after the conversion to christianity, so it's an evolution that involved the same people. After this conversion there may have been some fanaticism that opposed sience, but if I'm not wrong knowledge (even the ancient greek one) was very appreciated in the Byzantine empire. I don't know if we can say that it was an Hellenic state, but the Hellenic culture was not a stranger.



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Posted By: Alkiviades
Date Posted: 12-Oct-2005 at 06:10

Every empire in the course of time is dominated by a culture (or many cultures as years pass by) and the Roman Empire (no "eastern" empire, it's THE Empire) is no exeption to that rule.

The Greek culture, beeing strong, vibrant and a more or less common ground for all people throughout the central and eastern mediteranean (as result of a process that started from the 8th century BC colonisation and culminated in the conquest of Alexander the Great and the hellenistic empires) and as far as the borders of India, was bound to dominate the "Roman" world.

The dominance of the Greek culture, besides the obvious loans to the Roman culture, is present in the hellenization of elites throughout the whole eastern mediteranean, even if they had nothing to do with Greeks to begin with (Pontians and Parthians for instance - the Pontians being an amalgam of Anatolians, the Parthians of Iranian origin, yet both elites became extremely hellenized - Thracian and most of the Anatolians like Karians, Lydians, Lykians had been hellenized more thoroughly, not only the elites).

Roman arms and administration, Greek culture and art - that's what the Graeco-Roman world was all about.

Later on, when the Roman arms became... not so Roman and the administration became more "Eastern" (imitating the hellenistic kingdoms who imitated the "real" easteners), there had to be a new "glue" to put everything under perspective. The Greek culture and tradition became that glue, but I guess it wasn't enough, so the Romans (practical, oh so practical) adopted Christianity as the "new" glue that would enforce the Roman bonds.

What resulted was a Greek-Christian culture, that was dominant in the "eastern" Empire long before the fall of Rome, and that resulted in the gradual adjustment of the (still Roman) administration over the ages.  In Heraclius' times this resulted to the sweeping of the last (alright, not "last", since several elements remained sort of Roman till 1204 but still)  strong "pure" Roman elements and the replacement with "Greek" elements - starting from the official titles, the official language and others.

Stating that Byzantium was a Greek empire is an oversimplification, really. It's not a lie and it's not distant from reality, but its way too simplifying. Surely, most emperors were Greeks, the administrative elite was predominatly Greek (the militaire elite, though, was mostly Isaurian, Armenian and only partially Greek). Most, not ALL.

 It would be much better (and accurate) to describe it as a multinational empire, based on the (orthodox) Christian religion and with a dominant Greek culture.



Posted By: Jazz
Date Posted: 12-Oct-2005 at 20:41
My simple explanation of East Roman (or Byzantine if you will) Civilization is a Hellenistic realm with a Roman Law book and a Christian Church.

At what point forward in the transition from late Antiquity to the Middle Ages this applies is of course up to debate.

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Posted By: ArmenianSurvival
Date Posted: 13-Oct-2005 at 22:15
Originally posted by Komnenos

Heraclius(610-641) whose father was Armenian
Leo III the Isaurian (717-741)
Leo V the Armenian (813-820)
Basil I (867-886) of Armenian/Macedonian descent


I was under the impression that the entire Macedonian line of Byzantium was Armenian in origin, and not Macedonian at all. Please correct me if im wrong.

I read somewhere that out of its 1123 years of existance, Byzantium was ruled by emperors of Armenian origin for 786 years (again, correct me if im wrong). Heraclius, Basil II "Bulgar Slayer", Leo V, Nicephorus Phokas and John Tzimiskes to name a few.


About the Armenian-Byzantine relationship, the Armenians lost their capital city Ani in 1064 to the Byzantine Empire, and after establishing a kingdom in Cilicia (1080-1375), they maintained in an autonomous stance against Byzantium. The Armenian kingdom in Cilicia was shaped by two Armenian dynasties, the Rubenids and Hetumids. The Hetumids wanted to rule Cilicia under the rule of Byzantium (winning the support of the emperor), while the Rubenids wanted an autonomous Armenia. After numerous power struggles the entire region of Cilicia fell under the control of the Rubenid dynasty, and would remain so for virtually the entire existence of the kingdom (until late in the kingdom's history when a Rubenid princess married a Hetumid prince and combined the two dynasties). The kingdom collapsed because of a Mamluk invasion, in which Byzantium did not offer Armenia any help, because of the Armenians refusal to place their church under the Greek Orthodoxy (Armenians have had their own form of Christianity, Armenian Apostolic Christianity, since 451...Apostolic because the Apostles Thaddeus and Bartholemeu spread Christianity to Armenia in the 1st century A.D.). This created the religious strife that Phallanx was referring to.

Back to the original topic, i view the Byzantine empire as culturally Greek, even though their laws might have been Roman and they were originally part of the Roman Empire. Their official language was Greek (after Heraclius), and Byzantium was a dominatly Greek city, and the official religion was Greek Orthodox. Yes, they were multi-cultural and had many foreigners contribute to the empire (such as Armenians), but they were mainly Greek.

And about the Armenians referring to themselves as "Romanoi", this was not true. The Roman Empire under Trajan only controlled Armenia for 3 years (114-117 A.D.), and Armenia had to ally with Rome or Persia for reasons of national security. Other than these brief encounters, and some Armenian kings being nominal to Rome, Armenians never referred to themselves as "Romanoi". This was not even the case when the entire eastern flank of the Byzantine Empire was Armenian land, because Armenia was at its largest extent (culturally) at this time than almost any other period. I cant say the same for Bulgars and others because i do not know their history well.

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Posted By: Alkiviades
Date Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 00:26
If we go by blood (which is extremely innacurate anyway and has nothing to do with reality) the Macedonian dynasty minus Basil I was purely Greek: Basil married to a Greek lady (the maitresse of his good friend the emperor - Basil was ...ahem... doing a favor to his friend, who needed to make his girlfriend a "lady" but couldn't marry her himself). His son, Leo (called "the philosopher" later) was a progeny of his benefactor, Michael III himself, and not of Basil's. Several sources point out those facts, exclaiming that Basil had not sexual contacts with his wife for as long as Micheal was still alive. Basil took care of that, of course, by repaying his sponsor (and co-emperor, after a point... seems like a really generous lad this Michael, doesn't he?)  and benefactor by the blade and taking the throne for himself.

Michael was Greek, the child's mother was Greek... well, I guess the line from there on (and since Leo married to a Greek lady as well) was Greek by blood.

Heraclius was also Greek by blood, I really don't know why some people prefer to call him Armenian, and Nikephoros Phokas was also Greek by blood.

But the truth is, blood has nothing to do with it. Culture has everything to do with it. How many Romans, after the 1st century AD, could claim "pure blood"? How many people today, besides some very isolated communities, can claim "pure blood"? Genetics tells us that purity of blood is a myth. The Macedonian dynasty was Greek by culture and that's what really counts. For instance, Basil I barely spoke Armenian, and no other Macedonian emperor spoke any Armenian at all.


Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:03
The only other Armenians in the Macedonian dynasty were John I and Romanus I, the Armenians have obviously provided some very capable men for the Byzantine army and throne. But Alkiviades is correct, people identified themselves by language, religion and culture more than blood-ethnicity more in those days. None of the Armenian Emperors ever tried to impose monophysitism on Byzantium, were happy to speak Greek and kept up court protocol.

Alkiviades, I should point out that the mother of Leo VI (Eudocia Ingerina) was not Greek, she was Scandinavian. Eudocia Ingerina was an import from the Rus princedoms. Like you mentioned, though, bloodlines were less important than cultural alignment.


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Posted By: Alkiviades
Date Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:20

Scandinavian? Now that's something I've never heard before... Her father was Theophilos, and her mother was Theodora of Paphlagonia, and she was born in Constantinoupolis in 835... how could she have been Skandinavian?

Though we certainly agree on the notion that ancestry by blood of some specific ethnic group, was definitely not seen as important back in those times. A rather large number of emperors married with various non-byzantine princesses (Rus, Bulgarian, Khazar are mentioned among many others in the sources) and their progeny ruled the empire.



Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:36
Ingerina is derived from Scandinavian, I have never heard a Greek name similar to it. Now that I think about it the source I used (J. Norwich) said she was half Scandinavian, and that apparently was the cause of some consternation in the court.

The first foreign Empress that I recall off the top of my head was another Eudocia, a Frankish girl who married Theodosius II. Clearly the Empire did not suddenly turn Frankish on account of that .


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Posted By: Alkiviades
Date Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 03:44

Indeed, Ingerina sounds Skandinavian (or Rus)  but seing as her parents were known and she was born in Constantinoupolis, I don't know how she could be half-skandinavian.

But truly, the emperors had wives from all around the (known at the time) world, that wouldn't be a novelty. I mentioned her because she was not of "noble" descent and because she was Michael's Drunkard mistress, before becoming Basil's wife.

Also, there is even more controversy concerning Basil, as I've seen a couple of sources claiming he was of a "noble Greek family"... maybe he fabricated (or obscured) his past, to facilitate (via a Greek "noble" family) a more appropriate claim on the throne? I wouldn't know...



Posted By: ArmenianSurvival
Date Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 04:01
Originally posted by Alkiviades

Heraclius was also Greek by blood


His father was an Armenian, wasnt he? At least i know he was born in Armenia.


What you guys say is understandable, about them being aligned with the Greek culture because of their duty to the state. But how would you know if Basil II (or any Armenian emperor of Byzantium) didnt know how to speak Armenian? Is it mentioned in a history book or something?


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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 14-Oct-2005 at 05:28
I have not encountered it, but the fact that they spoke Greek well and used it regularly is something I am willing to assume. Had they not done so it is extremely likely that the historians would have said something about it. Procopius records of Justinian I, who was originally a peasant from Dardania and bi-lingual in Thracian and Latin, the he spoke terrible Greek throughout his life. If Basil was similar we would probably have heard about it through the historians. In Byzantium the upper classes would not even lower themselves to speak like commoners, trying often to imitate classical Attic as best they could. If Basil I could speak Armenian he definitely learnt Greek to a high standard and made it his everyday tongue. Stuck in the upper echelons of a Greek court, he would not have had many associates to speak Armenian to compared to Greeks. With the running of a Greek Empire in store for his sons, he would hardly have troubled himself teaching them Armenian if he even retained a good grasp of it later in life.

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Posted By: ArmenianSurvival
Date Posted: 15-Oct-2005 at 19:22
Well, I know Greek was probably their strongest language, seeing as they ruled an empire that was more or less Greek. But I was saying that in response to people that say "He wasnt Armenian because he probably didnt speak the language". Unless it was documented, no one really knows how well they actually knew Armenian, all we know is that they are of Armenian origin. In Armenian culture family ties are everything, in some cases it actually defines who the person is. Whether or not they had these same family ties as rulers of an empire is not widely known.


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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 15-Oct-2005 at 21:10
With regard to his links to Armenia itself,that is a bit shadowy. We know that he was actually brought up in Bulgarian territory after a Bulgarian raid captured him as a boy. If memory serves I think it was his family which came from Armenia, yet he himself was born in the Greek-speaking Thrace, was transported to a Slavic country, then later managed to make it to Constantinople. In that case he must be considered as probably being bi-lingual in Bulgar and Greek, though being better at Greek in all probability. He did not carry monophysitism with him, had he been a monphysite like virtually all Armenians we would definitely have heard of it. So it seems that in terms of basic bloodlines he had a strong Armenian heritage, though was culturally Greek enough to make an acceptable Emperor for the Byzantines. All in all it hardly matters what ethnicity he was, what is important is that he inaugerated a dynasty which would lead a vanguard in the resurgence of his civilization.

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Posted By: ArmenianSurvival
Date Posted: 16-Oct-2005 at 06:50
Ya, all rulers of the Byzantines were culturally Greek with a few exceptions. I would imagine he was part of the Greek Orthodox church as you said (Armenians had/have a completely different form of Christianity). The Byzantines ignored pleas from Armenia against Muslim invaders, all because the Armenians refused to place their church under the authority of the Greek Orthodoxy. This fact is proof enough to me, that all Armenian rulers of Byzantium were most probably nominal to the Greek Orthodox Church (they were probably crowned by Greek bishops too). Also, Armenian rulers of Byzantium were very agressive towards Armenia, trying to incorporate Armenia into the Byzantine Empire, levying heavy taxes towards them, and ignoring their pleas against Muslim invaders.


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Posted By: Constantine XI
Date Posted: 16-Oct-2005 at 21:58
Now there is an interesting point, they often were agressive towards their place of origin. The more intelligent Emperors retained Armenia as an autonomous buffer state. One of the greatest causes of decline IMO was that Constantine X Ducas abolished the right of the Armenians to maintain 50,000 men under arms in preference of them simply paying tribute to Byzantium instead. Soon enough the Turkish raids began, and would soon encroach on Byzantine Anatolia itself.......

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Posted By: ArmenianSurvival
Date Posted: 16-Oct-2005 at 22:34
What you said is agreed by some historians to be one of the key causes of the downfall of the Byzantine Empire. While the Byzantines were concentrating efforts on encorporating the Armenian church as part of the Greek Orthodoxy, and while they were trying to subdue Armenian leaders and undermining their efforts against Muslim invaders, the Byznatines lost their buffer-zone, and eventually, their empire.

You would think they would learn something after the Bagraduni Dynasty of Armenia fell to the Seljuks. But when the Rubenian Dynasty established an Armenian kingdom in Cilicia the Byzantines pulled the same act, allowing the Egyptian Mameluks to topple the kingdom in 1375. Again, no more buffer-zone, and their eastern flank was left wide open. You know what happened after


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 17-Oct-2005 at 16:56

One thing is certain.. Byzantines are distinct from the Greeks, they just used their language... thats all.. Same with the Ancient Macedonians (the inhabitants of today's Republic of Macedonia) - they just used the greek language and culture, and btw the greek language was second, an ancient macedonian language was the first spoken one.

greetings

 



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Posted By: Alkiviades
Date Posted: 17-Oct-2005 at 17:22


Posted By: Menander
Date Posted: 17-Oct-2005 at 17:49
Oh god. Quick, someone jump onto it before it explodes into saying Alexander was Slavic. 

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"No one saves us but ourselves. No one can and no one may. We ourselves must walk the path." -Siddhartha Gautama


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 14:19
Byzantine state was a multiethnical empire and "Orthodoxy" was the connecting element within the population;and the dividing element between the Greeks who were distinguished as "Hellenes"-those who remained attached to their traditions and finally destroyed-and those who identified themselves as "Romans" and assimilated to the eastern christian melting pot.
However-especially after Justinian-Byzantine Empire was established in lands that were in the sphere of influence of Greek culture for centuries,from Magna Gracea to modern Syria, and the population was either hellenic or hellenized.
In a modern parallel we would say that Greeks were for Byzantine Empire what Russians were for the Soviet one.Byzantines called Romans themselves but they were the Greeks for all the others,just like Soviets were the "Russians" for the rest of the world as they were the dominating population in the state.Communism would be the "Orthodoxy" of USSR...
In my opinion Byzantine Empire was heir of the ancient Greek states but the destroyer of Greek civilazation and culture the same time.

Complicated,eh?





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Posted By: Belisarius
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 16:04

No, it was actually a very good analogy.

True it was that the Byzantines in their devotion to Christianity destroyed many monuments from ancient Greece because of their pagan history.



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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 16:32
Originally posted by Belisarius

True it was that the Byzantines in their devotion to Christianity destroyed many monuments from ancient Greece because of their pagan history.



As discussed before, without Christianity as the one stable and unifying factor in their long history, the Byzantine Empire would have succumbed much earlier than 1453 to one of many attacks on its existence, and thus even less of the heritage of Greek antiquity would have survived and eventuall disseminated to the West.

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Posted By: Alkiviades
Date Posted: 07-Nov-2005 at 16:36
Many monuments? That's an understatement. I've found this little list in another forum. Enjoy...

- In 335 AD Constantine the great (a saint of the Christian church) orders the destruction of hundreds of pagan temples in Asia Minor and Palestine and the crucifixion of all wizards and diviners. Unluckily, the Christian church considers scientists and philosophers also wizards and diviners and hunts them down to. The neoplationic philosopher and scientist Sopater (Sopatros) was among those crucified.
- 341 AD and Constantius bans officially the hellenizein trait worship of Greek gods, practicing of philosophy, experimenting, thinking. Hundreds of philosophers get slaughtered or imprisoned. Only five years later, the Christian mob in Constantinople performs an impressive anti-Hellen pogrom in Constantinople. The philosopher and author Livanius is exiled.
- On 359 AD the first death camp known in history is being created in Skythopolis, Syria. Its sole reason for existence is the concentration of every free-thinking person from throughout the empire like 99% of them were put to death in that camp.
- On 364 Flavius Joviannous, an avid Christian, orders the burning of the great library of Antioch, in the name of the Christian god. Thousands of books are rendered into ashes.
- Valence, another avid Christian, in cooperation with the Church, begins another great empire-wide pogrom of the pagans from 370 to 373. The philosopher Simonides is burn on the stake, Maximus is decapitated, Patricius and Ilarius are getting the crucifixion treatment. Thousands of books are being burned Valens orders are clear eliminate all the Nationals and their works.
- The greatest holy warrior of Christianity, Theodosios (the so-called The Great) initiated the greatest pogrom against the non-christians ever, on 380. Whatever survived the previous attacks is now being torn down. Libraries get burned; most of the philosophy schools still open are being closed down. The same emperor appointed Maternus Cynegius and his horde of fanatic Christian monks, to find and destroy every non-Christian written work. In the subsequent four years (385-390) Cynegius and his monks complete the destruction.
- On 391 in Alexandria, the drama reaches its culmination: the remnants of Bibliotecha Alexandrina, the greatest library and center of knowledge of the ancient world, are being burned. The Serapion, hosting the precious tomes containing the last fragments of the ancient Graeco-Roman body of knowledge, is burned to the ground.
- The 4th ecclesiastic convention in Carthage bans on 398 the study of the Greek writings (all Greek writings) even for the Christian bishops!
- And, as an icing to the cake, on 415 the monks and guards of the Patriarchy of Alexandria, arrest the greatest scientist still alive, the lady Hypatia, a great mathematician and philosopher. They drag her inside the temple of St Michael, rip off her clothes, skin her alive with seashells, break all her bones and then cut her into small pieces.


Posted By: Jazz
Date Posted: 08-Nov-2005 at 22:44
Originally posted by Komnenos

Originally posted by Belisarius

True it was that the Byzantines in their devotion to Christianity destroyed many monuments from ancient Greece because of their pagan history.


As discussed before, without Christianity as the one stable and unifying factor in their long history, the Byzantine Empire would have succumbed much earlier than 1453 to one of many attacks on its existence, and thus even less of the heritage of Greek antiquity would have survived and eventuall disseminated to the West.


Not only that, but a lot of things simply got recycled.  There are Bronze doors when you exit the Hagia Sophia that were from a 2nd century BC temple, and all the columns used in the numerous cisterns were recycled from ancient temples.  Their re-use ensured thier longevity to this day for us to enjoy, otherwise they may have simply crumbled into oblivion otherwise.


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Posted By: merced12
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2006 at 06:51

i found it leo4

he was a khazar turks

Leo IV



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http://www.turks.org.uk/ - http://www.turks.org.uk/
16th century world;
Ottomans all Roman orients
Safavids in Persia
Babur in india
`azerbaycan bayragini karabagdan asacagim``


Posted By: Yiannis
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2006 at 07:20
Originally posted by merced12

i found it leo4

he was a khazar turks

He was not a Khazar, his mother was one and that's why people called him as such (Chazaros). It was common to distinguish Byzantium emperors on such characteristics, so we have emperors nicknamed by the people as:

"Sh*tnamed" -Kopronymos, "Gladiator" - Monomachos, slitnose - rinotmitos  etc... so Leo IV was nicknamed Chazaros.



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The basis of a democratic state is liberty. Aristotle, Politics

Those that can give up essential liberty to obtain a temporary safety deserve neither liberty nor safety. Benjamin Franklin


Posted By: Alkiviades
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2006 at 07:30
Also we have the naming of the dynasties/emperors according to their land of origin, irregardles of nationality. Like the Illyrian, the Isaurian, the Makedonian etc. The Makedonian, for instance, came from a clear Greek-Armenian bloodline, it doesn't mean that Basil I and his offspring (or, actually, Michael's offsrping, according to Byzantine gossip ) were of some "Makedonian" ethnic group.

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If you wanna play arrogant with me, you better have some very solid facts to back up that arrogance, or I'll tear you to pieces


Posted By: merced12
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2006 at 08:29
thanks yiannis

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http://www.turks.org.uk/ - http://www.turks.org.uk/
16th century world;
Ottomans all Roman orients
Safavids in Persia
Babur in india
`azerbaycan bayragini karabagdan asacagim``


Posted By: Spartakus
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2006 at 16:10
Originally posted by Yiannis

Originally posted by merced12

i found it leo4

he was a khazar turks

"Sh*tnamed" -Kopronymos, "

.That was good!



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"There are worse crimes than burning books. One of them is not reading them. "
--- Joseph Alexandrovitch Brodsky, 1991, Russian-American poet, b. St. Petersburg and exiled 1972 (1940-1996)


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 24-Jan-2006 at 03:54
Originally posted by Jazz


Not only that, but a lot of things simply got recycled.  There are Bronze doors when you exit the Hagia Sophia that were from a 2nd century BC temple, and all the columns used in the numerous cisterns were recycled from ancient temples.  Their re-use ensured thier longevity to this day for us to enjoy, otherwise they may have simply crumbled into oblivion otherwise.


I thought this was ironic and i lought a lot....it was wasn't it?


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 30-Aug-2007 at 14:45
Komnenos said: "That over the centuries the B.E. was reduced to a territory that allowed for a identity between ethnicity and state, namely today's Greece, might explain why the term "Romaioi" eventually became synonymous with the population of Greece, and why the Turks called the Greeks "Rum"."

Komnenos I think you're missing a few key points of both medieval and modern Greek history. "Romaioi" has been restricted to the Greeks of Greece only for the last 80 years, i.e. ever since the great population exchange between Greece and Turkey, when all ethnic Greeks from Asia Minor and later Constantinople went to Greece. In the 19th century there were more ethnic Greeks outside the Greek state rather than within it. Also you're also missing the fact that ever since the days of Jusinian I and until 1453, all Europeans referred to the Byzantine Empire as Greece and its people as Greeks in an ethnic sense. This is valid for Latins and Slavs alike. Also you seem to be completely ignorant of the modern Greek proto-nationalism which was born within the Byzantine Empire, starting with Psellos and reaching its peak in 1204. Then the term "Hellene" is returned to official use. The Byzantines did use another ethnic term prior to those events, that would be the Greek word "Graikos". This word was a synonym to "Rhomaios" though less frequently used (see the 6th c. trial of Abba Maximus when the monk was asked in Constantinople "why do you love the Romans and hate the Greeks"). Most scholars agree that the Greek Rhomaios was merely a political term and was only used within Byzantium. In other words the Byzantine Empire is considered as Eastern Roman until Heraclius, Greek until 1204 (see G. Ostrogorsky) and Hellenic until 1453.

You're obviously a person who is interested in the history of that state, however that does not give you the right to belittle Greek history and use such blunt language. Some of your arguments are really absurd and your tone does indeed imply a bias. The reason you are being so one-sided is due to the recent interest that western scholarship has shown in Byzantine culture. If the Ottoman Empire was somehow discovered to have been influencing western culture then people would argue that "Ottomans weren't Turks" and that "Sassanians weren't Iranians". This is how amateur western scholarship and revisionism works. Regards.


Posted By: Byzantine Emperor
Date Posted: 30-Aug-2007 at 23:58
Welcome to AE Scipion!
 
Originally posted by Scipion

Also you're also missing the fact that ever since the days of Jusinian I and until 1453, all Europeans referred to the Byzantine Empire as Greece and its people as Greeks in an ethnic sense.
 
Western Europeans who understood the nature of the Byzantine emperor's demands to be recognized as the Roman Emperor undoubtedly called them Greeks (Graeci) in a pejorative sense.  You often see the term "Greeks" coupled with derisive adjectives such as "perfidious" and "effeminate" in the accounts of Westerners.  There are plenty of examples of this in Liutprand of Cremona's account of his visit to Nikephoros II in the 10th century.  Liutprand subsequently demanded that his sovereign Otto be called "emperor" on equal footing with Nikephoros.  Of course, Nikephoros refused and chose to use the diminutive rex in reference to Otto.  So, there is a pejorative sense to the word in addition to ethnic when Western Europeans employed it.
 
Originally posted by Scipion

Also you seem to be completely ignorant of the modern Greek proto-nationalism which was born within the Byzantine Empire, starting with Psellos and reaching its peak in 1204. Then the term "Hellene" is returned to official use.
 
Can you cite some modern scholarship that posits Psellos' use of the term as being indicative of modern Greek proto-nationalism?  I would hope that you do not think that any scholar who does not agree with this label at this time period is an "amateur Western revisionist."
 
I think it would be more accurate to describe the use of "Hellene" in reference to Greek national pride in George Gemistos Plethon's use of it in the 15th century.  One must concede that the imperial unity of Byzantium at that point was fragmented and smaller in size then in Psellos' time.  Nonetheless, on a local level, it still lived in a smaller scale with slight variations such as in the Morea, Thessaloniki, Constantinople and countryside, and Trebizond.  Was Obolensky, who was not a Westerner, incorrect when he termed the late Byzantine Empire a "Byzantine Commonwealth?"
 
Originally posted by Scipion

Most scholars agree that the Greek Rhomaios was merely a political term and was only used within Byzantium.
 
Scholars such as? 
 
I don't think Rhomaioi was "merely a political term."  Within Byzantium, yes.  But the fact that the Byzantine emperors and people thought themselves to be descended from the Romans, is an idea that they held all the way to 1453/61.  To go beyond what Plethon was saying when he used the word "Hellene" in the 15th century is to journey into anacronism.
 


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http://www.allempires.net/forum_posts.asp?TID=12713 - Late Byzantine Military
http://www.allempires.net/forum_posts.asp?TID=17337 - Ottoman perceptions of the Americas


Posted By: Flipper
Date Posted: 31-Aug-2007 at 03:16
Btw, Romaios (pron. Romeos) is a citizen of the western Roman Empire. Romios is the word the Greeks used for themselves after the banning of Hellen.


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 31-Aug-2007 at 09:10
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Western Europeans who understood the nature of the Byzantine emperor's demands to be recognized as the Roman Emperor undoubtedly called them Greeks (Graeci) in a pejorative sense.


Thanks for your welcoming. I'm afraid that the westeners used "Greeks" in an ethnic sense. That was in fact the standard word for "Byzantine" in their languages. This can be also proved by the fact that even Byzantine noblemen would use "Greeks" instead of "Rhomaioi" when referring to the Latins (see for examples the appeal of Alexius IV to the crusaders). There have been specific studies on this, see for example Ciggaar's "Western Travellers to Constantinople: Cultural and Political relations" among many others. The westeners didn't make a distinction between the Greeks of Byzantium and the ancient Greeks. In fact, they only viewed Byzantium as a decayed version of ancient Greece. In medieval Latin texts "Graeci" and "Graecia" is the standard terminology for Byzantium. This is only normal if you think how the Latins -the direct heritors of the Romans- perceived themselves and the rest of the world. If they had ever seen Byzantium as a Roman Empire rather than a Greek one, they would have willingly submitted themselves to its rule. But that never happened. In official Latin texts, e.g. epistles that were sent to the Byzantine Emperors, terms such as "Imperator Romanorum" were used only until Charlemagne's coronation in 800 AD. This is where your example about emperor Nikephoros and the Pope comes into place. The resurrection of the Roman Empire under the Frankish monarch means to that the Greeks can have no official claims on the Imperium. In the eyes of the Latins the Roman scepters were simply transferred from the Greeks to the Germans (Romano nomine ad Graecos). This proves that the term "Roman" has long acquired a strictly political sense. However, the propaganda arguments used by Nikephoros to refute this and by the Pope to promote it cannot be of any historical significance today. If we take seriously the arguments of the former then we'll have to believe that he was a direct ancestor of Julius Caesar. If we take seriously the arguments of the latter the we'll have to believe that Byzantium has never had any connections to the Roman Empire whatsoever. This is why that event is irrelevant to the question at hand. What happened between the Pope and the "Roman" Emperors is independent to how the Latins viewed the Byzantines and vice versa up to that point. The event is important only from a political perspective, e.g. because it signals a break in the relations between the West and Byzantium.

Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Can you cite some modern scholarship that posits Psellos' use of the term as being indicative of modern Greek proto-nationalism?  I would hope that you do not think that any scholar who does not agree with this label at this time period is an "amateur Western revisionist."

Nobody would say that by Psellos' time there was a nationalism in the modern sense of the term (as it happened later). However, the era of Psellos is usually termed the "First Byzantine renaissance" due to the fact that Classical (neo-Platonic) thought is injected in Christian ideology. This renaissance is the first step to the inevitable, i.e. the creation of a nation-state out of an ecumenical empire. The real modern Greek proto-nationalism begins with the fall of Constantinople to the crusaders (1204). During that period Byzantine scholars such as Nicetas Choniates would start to proudly refer to the Byzantines as "Hellenes". The Byzantine emperor Vatatzes tells the Latins that "Hellenes have been granted the rule of the Roman state by Constantine the Great". The emperors of Nicaea would go as far as to argue that the Greek rulers of Trebizond and Epirus cannot lay claims to the Roman throne because they're not "Hellenic enough" in terms of land of population. The Lascarides argue that the Byzantine army has lost its fierce due to the large amount of non-Hellenic mercenary soldiers. In other words, from 1204 to 1453 the Empire becomes consciously an ethnic Greek state, and Byzantine noblemen use their Greekness as the main argument towards the succession of the Roman throne. Books such as Donald Nicol's, The last centuries of Byzantium or Michael Angold's Church and society in Byzantium under the Comneni: 1081-1261 are good sources on this topic.

Originally posted by Scipion

I think it would be more accurate to describe the use of "Hellene" in reference to Greek national pride in George Gemistos Plethon's use of it in the 15th century.


Personally I don't think that Plethon's cultural and political views can be representative of the Byzantine society of his time. His views tended more towards an utopian resurrection of an ancient Greek patriotism rather than the creation of a modern Greek nationalism (don't forget that Pletho was a pagan and modern Greek nationalism was founded on Orthodoxy). He did of course continue Psellos' work by contributing to the "Second Byzantine renaissance", yet the vision of a Hellenic Empire dates to the fourth crusade. I do find that the term "Byzantine commonwealth" is a good descriptor of the fragmented Greek states at the time.
 
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Scholars such as? 
I don't think Rhomaioi was "merely a political term."  Within Byzantium, yes.  But the fact that the Byzantine emperors and people thought themselves to be descended from the Romans, is an idea that they held all the way to 1453/61.  To go beyond what Plethon was saying when he used the word "Hellene" in the 15th century is to journey into anacronism.


I'll have to disagree wholeheartedly. Michael Angold explicitely states that the Byzantines did not look to the Caesars and the Romans as their ancestors, but to the Emperors of Constantinople and the Greek-speaking christians of their domain. The Eastern Roman Empire was indeed a distinct political and cultural identity to the Roman Empire, hence why it has always been coined with a distinct name. I think your views are too affected by Nicephorus' epistles to the pope in which he claims himself to be an ancestor of the Caesars. I think you would agree that such a claim under such circumstances cannot be the basis of conclusions upon the entire history of the Byzantine state. Don't forget that Julian the Apostate would also call himself a Hellene and claim that the Roman Empire was a in fact the ecumenical form of Hellenism. But that would never lead us to conclude that the ancient Rome was a Greek Empire.

Steven Runciman would be one of the credible scholars who explain that "Rhomaios" had really the connotation of "Christian Greek". He also explains that during medieval times "Romans" had a political connotation in relation to the Imperium and the claims on ecumenical, christian rule. On the other hand D. Anguelov explains that the Greek "Graikos" was acceptable as an ethnonym synonymous to "Rhomaios" in Byzantine society (unlike the pagan "Hellene"). In my line of reasoning, the above facts in combination to the Greek nationalism of the 12th century and the Latin texts of late antiquity prove that the Greekness of Byzantium is not an anachronism. Similarly the cultural heritage of the Roman Empire had always been native to the lands of the Latins (in terms of language, religion and culture, which is what really defines a people). And as I said earlier the views of Pletho have little or no relevance to the question at hand. I'd better stop here because this is getting too long. My regards.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 31-Aug-2007 at 17:19
Originally posted by Belisarius

No, it was actually a very good analogy.

True it was that the Byzantines in their devotion to Christianity destroyed many monuments from ancient Greece because of their pagan history.


Funny to hear this because Byzantium is generally regarded as the only direct link between classical antiquity and modern times. No Byzantium would mean no classical studies, no Italian renaissance and the list goes on. Byzantine education encompassed all aspects of classical knowledge which was preserved into modern times. Also you'd be surprised to know how many pagan Hellenic art existed in Constantinople. The Theodosian walls were decorated with the labors of Hercules and the streets of Constantinople contained statues of the Olympian gods. Nicetas Choniates describes a huge, golden statue of Athena which was destroyed during the anti-latin mob riots of 1202. All of those treasures were looted during the sack of the city.


Posted By: Chilbudios
Date Posted: 05-Sep-2007 at 14:44
I'll have to disagree wholeheartedly. Michael Angold explicitely states that the Byzantines did not look to the Caesars and the Romans as their ancestors, but to the Emperors of Constantinople and the Greek-speaking christians of their domain. The Eastern Roman Empire was indeed a distinct political and cultural identity to the Roman Empire, hence why it has always been coined with a distinct name. I think your views are too affected by Nicephorus' epistles to the pope in which he claims himself to be an ancestor of the Caesars. I think you would agree that such a claim under such circumstances cannot be the basis of conclusions upon the entire history of the Byzantine state. Don't forget that Julian the Apostate would also call himself a Hellene and claim that the Roman Empire was a in fact the ecumenical form of Hellenism. But that would never lead us to conclude that the ancient Rome was a Greek Empire.
I think the issue is a bit more complex than that, because the Byzantine Empire spans for over a millenium and projecting a single identity (political, ethnical) over it, seems a bit inapropriate.
Hlne Ahrweiler in L'idologie politique de l'empire byzantin says the actual image on what the empire is (universal or national), and who its inhabitants were it varied in time, from emperor to emperor, from era to era. The reign of Justinian I is obviously the apogee of the idea of Roman Empire. That's why (if you quoted him correctly) I don't think Angold is right. Moreover, in its first centuries, the Byzantine Empire had both Latin as official language and Latinophone territories (like the northern Balkans, not to mention Justinian's reconquests!).


Posted By: shock and thunder
Date Posted: 18-Aug-2015 at 11:12
An old thread,

but obviously the Latin language and Roman institutions were dominant while the Western Empire was still in existence.

However, Greek was practically the lingua franca of the Mediterranean and Near East, and the Hellenistic domains were only acculturated gradually even after incorporation into the Roman domain.  And it is suggestive that writers continually pop up through the centuries to bring up tactical drills of the Macedonian phalanx throughout almost the entire history of the empire, from the time of the united empire to late antiquity and to many centuries after its fall.

That being said, for many centuries after the Arab invasion, Asia Minor was essentially the empire, with Greece being basically wholly lost, necessitating a substantial recolonization effort when the Empire finally returned to Greece.

Only after the Turk overspead Anatolia and the Crusades did the Empire begin obsessing itself with being 'Hellenic'; perhaps quite naturally given the restricted domain in those days which now essentially covered only Greece - but the fanaticism attached to its 'Hellenic' identity was to be its great detriment.


Posted By: Aeoli
Date Posted: 27-Feb-2016 at 13:10

This is nice map and I am not sure about it. In the central anatolia, there are to much Turkic people in and Galatian? 

Azeri and Turkish people quite similar. But we see them two different nations so what about Greeks? 




Posted By: Palani kumar
Date Posted: 07-Apr-2016 at 05:02
Originally posted by strategos

I was looking at the FYROMians main website, quite humorous i might say,  and I found an article on how the Byzantine Empire was not a Hellenic Empire. I know it ruled over diverse people, but was it not mainly Hellenic at heart? What are your thoughts?


To be frank in many ways it was largely influenced by Greek Culture and so on. In fact some of the best emperors and Generals of Byzantine Empire were Greek Decedents, who took the Empire to it's heights.


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History engages in a complex http://www.altencalsoftlabs.com/services/product-engineering/ - product engineering process, where humans are shaped as they learn and punished if not.


Posted By: Morteg
Date Posted: 01-Jun-2016 at 17:00
I'm not seeing any "greeks""hellens" on the map... must be wrong with mostly Thracian tribes there...

Byzantine is a name that people are using for the East Roman Empire, as the holy Roman empire SPQR was struck in two :) and than came WRE and ERE...

In year of 1553 AD the german Hieronymus Wolf, created the false term Byzantine, that actually came from old city called Byzas (Busan was actually the more old name and that is Thracian)

The so called greek-helenic is actually coming from the Thracians, but the africans who are the actual greeks that everybody still calling them greeks  change it to fit the broken language they have.

There are a lot of Emperors from Thracian Origin, not latin, not greek, not armenian, not anything else...

1.Aurelian (Lucius Domitius Aurelianus Augustus).

Born in Sirmium on September 9 of 214 or 215 AD. He ruled the Empire between September 270 AD and September 275 AD before being assassinated by the Praetorian Guard on his way to Asia Minor and campaign against Sassanids.

2.
Claudius Gothicus (Marcus Aurelius Valerius Claudius Augustus).

Born in Sirmium on May 10, 210 AD. He ruled between September 268 AD and January 270 AD before succumbing to the plague. He’s infamous for beheading the St. Valentine.


3.
Constantine I (Flavius Valerius Aurelius Constantinus Augustus).

Born in Naissus on February 27, 272 AD. He emerged as strongest of the Emperors vying for power in early fourth century and left a legacy like none other of his coevals and wider. He ruled the Empire between July 25, 306 AD and May 22, 337 AD. He’s responsible for passing the Edict of Milan in February 313 AD which gave Christianity a legal status within the Empire, thus effectively ending the prosecution of Christians.

4.
Constantius Chlorus (Marcus Flavius Valerius Constantius Herculius Augustus).

Born in northern Dardania or southern Moesia Superior on March 31, 250 AD. He was the father of Constantine I (Constantine the Great) and ruled the Empire between May 1, 305 AD and July 25, 306 AD.

5.
Constantius II (Flavius Julius Constantius Augustus).

Second son of Constantine the Great was born in Sirmium on August 7, 317 AD. His reign as Augustus lasted between 350 AD and 361 AD, but he also ruled as co-Augustus with Constantine II between 337 AD and 340 AD, and with his youngest brother Constans between 340 AD and 350 AD.


6.
Constantius III (Flavius Constantius Augustus).

Born in Naissus, in Serbia, Constantius III ended up being a successful general and politician. His reign as Augustus, however, only lasted between February 8, 421 AD and September 2, 421 AD when he died of natural causes – such a rarity for a Roman Emperor.

7.
Diocletian (Gaius Aurelius Valerius Diocletianus Augustus).

Born in Salona, modern day Solin near Split, Croatia circa December 22, 244 AD. He reigned for 21 years (quite a feat at the time), between November 20, 284 AD and May 1, 305 when he retired peacefully becoming the first Roman Emperor to do so. You can still see his palace in Split which is UNESCO World Heritage Site.


8.Galerius (Gaius Galerius Valerius Maximianus Augustus)Gratian (Flavius Gratianus Augustus).

Born in Felix Romuliana around 260 AD, although some sources state he was born in Serdica, modern-day Sofia, Bulgaria. He ruled the Empire between May 1, 305 AD and May 311 AD alongside (or in competition with) Constantius, Severus, Constantine and finally Licinius. He’s responsible for the erection of Felix Romuliana (Gamzigrad) which is UNESCO World Heritage Site near modern-day Zajecar (Zaječar) in Serbia.

9.Gratian (Flavius Gratianus Augustus).

Born in Sirmium, in Serbia between April 18 and May 23, 359 AD. He was the eldest son of Valentinian I and ruled below his father as Junior Augustus in the West between 367 AD and 375 AD. He then ruled as Augustus alone and jointly with his brother between 375 AD and August 25, 383 AD when he was murdered.

10.Hostilian (Gaius Valens Hostilianus Messius Quintus Augustus).

Born circa 230 in Sirmium, modern-day Sremska Mitrovica in Serbia. He was Trajan Decius’ younger son who ruled the Empire after his father’s death for few short months in second half of the 251 AD before succumbing to plague.


11.
Jovian (Flavius Iovianus Augustus).

Born in Singidunum, modern-day Belgrade, in 331 AD. He was hastily elected Emperor after the death of his predecessor Julian, and only reigned between June 26, 363 AD and February 17, 364 AD.

12.Licinius I (Gaius Valerius Licinianus Licinius Augustus).

Born circa 263 AD – 265 AD near Felix Romuliana, Licinius I ruled in competition with Constantine the Great between November 11, 308 AD and September 18, 324 AD. He was ultimately defeated by his rival and executed in 325 AD.

13.Maximian (Marcus Aurelius Valerius Maximianus Herculius Augustus).

Born near Sirmium around 250 AD. He ruled jointly with Diocletian between April 286 AD and May 1, 305 AD. He abdicated together with Diocletian as well, but declared himself Emperor again in 310 AD before being overthrown by then legitimate ruler Constantine I and committing suicide on his behest.

14.
Maximinus II Daia (Gaius Valerius Galerius Maximinus Daia Augustus).

Born close to Felix Romuliana, near today’s village of Sarkamen (Šarkamen) in Serbia. His reign during the civil war lasted between May 1, 311 AD and 313 AD when he was defeated by Licinius I and probably committed suicide.

15.
Probus (Marcus Aurelius Probus Augustus).

Born in Sirmium circa August 19, 232 AD. He was the Emperor between September 276 AD and September or October 282 AD. Like Aurelian, he too was murdered by his own troops.

16.
Quintillus (Marcus Aurelius Claudius Quintillus Augustus).

Born in Sirmium like his brother Claudius, probably sometimes in 212 AD. He only ruled for a few short months during 270 AD before being killed or committing suicide.

17.
Severus II (Flavius Valerius Severus Augustus).

Born around Naissus which is modern-day Nis (Niš), Serbia. Severus ruled as Augustus during tumultuous time between summer 306 AD and April 307 AD. He was captured by Maxentius and executed or forced to commit suicide in 307 AD.


18.Trajan Decius (Caesar Gaius Messius Quintus Traianus Decius Augustus)

Born circa 201 AD in Budalia near Sirmium, modern day Martinci and Sremska Mitrovica (Serbia) respectively. He ruled between September or October 249 AD and June 251 AD when he was killed in the Battle of Abritus, thus becoming the first Roman Emperor killed in a battle by foreign enemy.

19.Valens (Flavius Julius Valens Augustus).

Valentinian’s brother who was also born in Cibalae, in Croatia. He jointly ruled with his brother over the Eastern Roman Empire from March 28, 364 AD to August 9, 378 AD. He died at the Battle of Adrianople against the Goths.

20.
Valentinian I (Flavius Valentinianus Augustus).

Born in Cibalae, present-day Vinkovci , Croatia, in 321 AD. He is considered the last great Western Roman Emperor because Rome rapidly declined after his reign which lasted between February 26, 364 AD and November 17, 375 AD.

21.
Vetranio (Flavius Vetranio Augustus).

Born somewhere in modern-day Serbia and ruled as Augustus in the West alongside Constantius II temporarily between March 1, 350 AD and December 25, 350 AD.

22.Maximinus Thrax (Gaius Julius Verus Maximinus Augustus) who ruled between 235 AD and 238 AD was born either in Moesia or Thrace ruled both Eastern and Western part of the empire before Western Empire’s downfall in 476 AD.

23.
Justinian I (Flavius Petrus Sabbatius Iustinianus Augustus) Known as Upravda, Justinian the Great, ruled between 482 Ad and 565 AD. Born in Tauresium, Macedonia.

Other Thracian Emperors: Marcian, Lion Bes, Leo II, Tiberius II, Foka, Zenon, Vasilius I Macedon and a lot of others...

between 310 and 660 there were 15 Roman emperors who were on the throne of Byzantion and they were Thracian, not greek (greek were not fighters , everyone knows that, weak people are the african greeks).

as Frigians (Briges who are also thracians) were on the throne of ERE, let not forget that 3 of them are recorded and they not only didnt like the greeks but also they nasty african cultur, these emperors were Michael II, Teofil and Michael III.

Lets not forget about the Armenian dynasty who also didn't like greeks, the Lakapin dynasty, Leo V Armenian, Roman I, John I Tzimiskes, Philipikos Vardan  and others...

 There are more than 40 rulers of Constantinopol who were definetly not greek, so ERE, first like Roman Empire, and even after that as ERE (Byzantine) from the time of Constaine I the thracian, The Great and so on, is showing that is not greek culture. And on the FIRST OF ALL, greek culture was based on the THRACIANS, changes from the africans and stolen with many other things from the greeks. Herodotus HIIMSELF is telling you this!
 The whole Greek culture today is actually created after 1830 from America and other countries, trying to stop the Rise of Bulgarians and Rusians, but DNA doesn't lie neither Anthropology, Archeology and linguistics. People only lie.
 The big Pantheon of greek gods is actually lie, why ? because they are Thraco-Pelasgian ones.

http://sparotok.blogspot.bg/2013/09/who-were-thracians.html


Posted By: Palani kumar
Date Posted: 25-Nov-2016 at 02:34
@Morteg, I agree with you.. And to add more
The term Byzantium comes the ancient Greek Colonial City Byzantium, it was located in the same place where the future City of Constantinople (Literally meaning Constantine's city) was built by the Great emperor Constantine. 

But the greatest fun is that, this name (term for the empire) "Byzantine Empire" was coined and used about a century after the empire ceased to exist. 

The Empire at it's time was called by many terms, but the inhabitants considered themselves as just Romans, and the Empire was called as "Imperium Romanum", (Meaning Roman Empire in Latin)

The term "Eastern Roman Empire was not used with in the Empire, it was used by Westerners more specifically by Rulers of modern day France & Germany, as after Charlemagne was crowned by Pope Leo III as Imperator Augustus literally meaning "Holy Roman Emperor.


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History engages in a complex http://www.altencalsoftlabs.com/services/product-engineering/ - product engineering process, where humans are shaped as they learn and punished if not.


Posted By: medenaywe
Date Posted: 25-Nov-2016 at 04:17
August is name of month when I have been born,etc.etc.Division of Roman Empire was question of domination of different centers of power with possible difference in population contents.Have a nice time here Palani Kumar.Smile



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