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Rise of Islam

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: Post-Classical Middle East
Forum Discription: SW Asia, the Middle East and Islamic civilizations from 600s - 1900 AD
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=1596
Printed Date: 10-May-2024 at 09:18
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Topic: Rise of Islam
Posted By: Belisarius
Subject: Rise of Islam
Date Posted: 18-Dec-2004 at 19:59

Just how were the early Muslims able to topple Sassanid Persia and pretty much everything else?




Replies:
Posted By: Christscrusader
Date Posted: 18-Dec-2004 at 20:03
Will to fight and the weakness of areas they conquered.

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Heaven helps those, who help themselves.
-Jc


Posted By: Belisarius
Date Posted: 19-Dec-2004 at 11:18

Originally posted by Christscrusader

Will to fight and the weakness of areas they conquered.

Yes, but the Byzantines, and the Sassanids? Those were not weak states at all.



Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 19-Dec-2004 at 12:39

Originally posted by Christscrusader

Will to fight and the weakness of areas they conquered.

they were not weak

so typical of western  to undermine such eastern POWER

Alexander the "Great"  couldn't controle India,  Arabs did ( the Arab General was a teenager  younger than Alex)

Alexander the "Great" couldn't reach China,    Arabs did

 

and that was done in 1 to 2 years with taking spain too.

 

 

 



Posted By: Tobodai
Date Posted: 19-Dec-2004 at 13:54

Arabs didnt reach China they reached its protectorate, and Islam was introduced to India by Turks, not Arabs.

Arab sucess has to do with skilled generalship and that Sassanids and Byzantium had just concluded a very destructive war.



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"the people are nothing but a great beast...
I have learned to hold popular opinion of no value."
-Alexander Hamilton


Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 19-Dec-2004 at 14:06

I copied the following from Wikipedia

 

With the ascent of al-Walid I, Hajjaj's reputation grew due to his selection and deployment of numerous successful generals who expanded the Islamic empire. Hajjaj was given these powers due to his high status in the Umayyad government, and he exhibited a lot of control over the provinces that he governed.

Among these generals was the teen-aged Muhammad bin Qasim, who in 712 was sent to Sindh in India. Compared to his general Hajjaj was more hardline insisting that pagans (or those who were not people of the book) be killed or enslaved.

Qutaibah bin Muslim was sent to conquer Turkestan which he did, even penetrating the borders of China and getting a tribute payment from the Chinese emperor. Perhaps his most successful general was Musa bin Nusair who consolidated control over North Africa and who sent Tariq bin Ziyad to invade Spain.

 

those were arabs not turkish

 



Posted By: Berosus
Date Posted: 19-Dec-2004 at 19:24
The Byzantines and the Persians wore themselves out in their bloodiest war, which lasted 25 years (603-628), and ended just before the Arabs burst onto the world scene.  And then the Persians followed that up with a four-year civil war, between Kavadh II and Yazdegerd III.  That's why today's Zoroastrians use a calendar that counts years from 632 A.D.; they are marking the coronation of Yazdegerd, the last king who followed their creed.

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Nothing truly great is achieved through moderation.--Prof. M.A.R. Barker


Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 21-Dec-2004 at 00:24

 

still persia was not weak

 

 



Posted By: Christscrusader
Date Posted: 25-Jan-2005 at 19:36
Originally posted by azimuth

Originally posted by Christscrusader

Will to fight and the weakness of areas they conquered.

they were not weak

so typical of western  to undermine such eastern POWER

Alexander the "Great"  couldn't controle India,  Arabs did ( the Arab General was a teenager  younger than Alex)

Alexander the "Great" couldn't reach China,    Arabs did

 

and that was done in 1 to 2 years with taking spain too.

How long did it take the Arabs to reach China? When did Arabs  control India? Wasn't it the turks? Alexander is one man, and I guess he must be pretty important if u need to compare a WHOLE group of people up to him.



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Heaven helps those, who help themselves.
-Jc


Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 25-Jan-2005 at 23:41
Originally posted by Christscrusader

How long did it take the Arabs to reach China? When did Arabs  control India? Wasn't it the turks? Alexander is one man, and I guess he must be pretty important if u need to compare a WHOLE group of people up to him.

since you dont read the rest of the posts i will repeat what i posted earlier

I copied the following from Wikipedia

 

With the ascent of al-Walid I, Hajjaj's reputation grew due to his selection and deployment of numerous successful generals who expanded the Islamic empire. Hajjaj was given these powers due to his high status in the Umayyad government, and he exhibited a lot of control over the provinces that he governed.

Among these generals was the teen-aged Muhammad bin Qasim, who in 712 was sent to Sindh in India. Compared to his general Hajjaj was more hardline insisting that pagans (or those who were not people of the book) be killed or enslaved.

Qutaibah bin Muslim was sent to conquer Turkestan which he did, even penetrating the borders of China and getting a tribute payment from the Chinese emperor. Perhaps his most successful general was Musa bin Nusair who consolidated control over North Africa and who sent Tariq bin Ziyad to invade Spain.

 

those were arabs not turkish

 

also Alexander is one man and this one man wont be able to do anything without something called ARMY with more than 40000 men so my comparison doesnt make him that much important ( he is more important to Europeans and Westerners but not to Arabs) it is a Comparison between two Armies

also alexander's army was a nation army while the Army sent to india was just part of the Islamic armies who were speread in the west and the east Conquering every directions.

so to compare Alexander and His Army with one part of Ummayad Empire army makes that Group of people more important than Alexander's Empire's Army.

 



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Posted By: Christscrusader
Date Posted: 26-Jan-2005 at 16:36
Originally posted by azimuth

Originally posted by Christscrusader

How long did it take the Arabs to reach China? When did Arabs  control India? Wasn't it the turks? Alexander is one man, and I guess he must be pretty important if u need to compare a WHOLE group of people up to him.

 

 ( he is more important to Europeans and Westerners but not to Arabs) it is a Comparison between two Armies

 

I can assure you, any Scholar, western or not, can appreciate alexanders conquests. (unless they have some problems)



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Heaven helps those, who help themselves.
-Jc


Posted By: demon
Date Posted: 26-Jan-2005 at 18:25

I'm going to have to agree with Christcrusader with this.  Hellenistic culture influenced Indian architecture- which got transmitted to rest of asia via Buddhism.  So its quite interesting to see how 40000 men changed the artistic style of a continent. 

Even if someone defeats others in battle, soon or later, it will degenerate into another fairy tale about a brave knight.  But art, lives forever. 



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Grrr..


Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 27-Jan-2005 at 14:15
sow aht? Islamic architecture spreads from Spain to Indonesia and from Africa to Russian Tatarstan province and Chinese Xinjiang province, how far did Hellenism spread?

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Posted By: Christscrusader
Date Posted: 27-Jan-2005 at 19:07
how LONG did it take for that? quite longer than hellenisism.

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Heaven helps those, who help themselves.
-Jc


Posted By: Miller
Date Posted: 27-Jan-2005 at 23:06
Originally posted by Temujin

sow aht? Islamic architecture spreads from Spain to Indonesia and from Africa to Russian Tatarstan province and Chinese Xinjiang province, how far did Hellenism spread?



Actually, what is today is labeled as Islamic architecture is derived from Sassanid domed architecture which was adapted by Muslims. It really has nothing to do with Arab conquerers.






Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 28-Jan-2005 at 00:29

Originally posted by Christscrusader

how LONG did it take for that? quite longer than hellenisism.

much less than the Hellenisisim

from year 708 AD to 714 AD  north africa, spain, north india and big part of centeral asia were taken.

 



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Posted By: Faran
Date Posted: 28-Jan-2005 at 13:12
Originally posted by Miller

Originally posted by Temujin

sow aht? Islamic architecture spreads from Spain to Indonesia and from Africa to Russian Tatarstan province and Chinese Xinjiang province, how far did Hellenism spread?



Actually, what is today is labeled as Islamic architecture is derived from Sassanid domed architecture which was adapted by Muslims. It really has nothing to do with Arab conquerers.




 

I would say it has alot to do with Muslims, though Islamic architecture is derived from Persian architecture.  Islam basically changed Arabs from one of the most savage to the one of the most advanced people in the world.  They obviously adopted elements of nearby civilizations since they had less civilization of their own (at first), but Pre-Islamic Persia would have known nothing of the splendour of the great Muslim architects.  But I think it is correct to say that Persia was largely to the calliphates what Greece and Rome were to later Europeans.



Posted By: Infidel
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2005 at 04:19

Originally posted by Temujin

sow aht? Islamic architecture spreads from Spain to Indonesia and from Africa to Russian Tatarstan province and Chinese Xinjiang province, how far did Hellenism spread?

Hellenism isn't just about architecture. And if one must recognize and cherish the muslim heritage to the world, one must also honestly agree that the greek heritage is unsurmountable.



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An nescite quantilla sapientia mundus regatur?


Posted By: JasSum
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2005 at 05:34
persia was week at that time.
Arabs had a great luck to find neigbours at their worst standings.

And they spread in places that were runing away from byzant becaue of the herretic movemants (egypt, ermenia)
So they would rahter had islam over them than the ortodox empire. (maybe because islam was closer to their belives, and maybe they were just stubborn)


Posted By: Artaxiad
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2005 at 16:07

The Byzantine Empire was oppressing non-Orthodox Christians, including the Coptic Egyptians, Apostolic Armenians, and Assyrians. Maybe that's why they would rather have seemingly tolerant Arabs as their rulers, not because Islam was closer to their beleifs.

But some Armenians were far from welcoming them with open arms. Local  dynasties and lords (such as Theotoros Rshduni) formed armies to try to stop the Arab invaders.

The Arabs' tolerance towards Armenians depended from emir to emir.

 



Posted By: Ptolemy
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 00:11

The Persians were definately weak. They just concluded two decades and a half of warfare with the Romans, followed by a civil war. The Roman armies had pierced into their very heart and took their major cities, so yes, they were weak.

There is some evidence that Egyptians may have helped the Arabs with their conquest (or so I hear).



Posted By: HulaguHan
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 01:43

I copied the following from Wikipedia

Do not cut and paste when it comes to historical facts. Rely on the respective book such as Rene Grousset' s Empire of the steps.

Among these generals was the teen-aged Muhammad bin Qasim, who in 712 was sent to Sindh in India. Compared to his general Hajjaj was more hardline insisting that pagans (or those who were not people of the book) be killed or enslaved.

Qutaibah bin Muslim was sent to conquer Turkestan which he did, even penetrating the borders of China and getting a tribute payment from the Chinese emperor. Perhaps his most successful general was Musa bin Nusair who consolidated control over North Africa and who sent Tariq bin Ziyad to invade Spain.

 

Qutaiba conwuered Sogdia todays Uzbekistan which was a PErsian region those days. Turks invade there correct but that region became Turkiified in the times of Timurlenk.

There was no Turkestan in those days. Turkestan is a new region ans is the word given to the region of

Western Turkistan

Turkmenistan , Uzbekistan, Kazakhistan, Kirghizistan

Eastern Turkistan

Uighur region in China.

In India conquests were achieved by first Ghaznavids then Timurid Baburs.

You did not reach Chinese border. You invaded Tashkent, Chinese attacked you, it was Chinese who reached arabs. 

You should thank us, Karluk assault from north saved you from chinese slaughter in Talas.

Look at the map and see where Talas is. See whether China or Abbasids (who were mainly Persian, that is another story) made the campaign.

those were arabs not turkish

Ghazne Empire and Babur Empire are pure Turkish, pure...

 



Posted By: HulaguHan
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 02:01

But these aside, Abbasid and Umayyad Empires were as strong as Alexander' s, no doubt. Lets just make something clear, but. These empires were the USA of 8th century. Only Franks and Turks stopped them.

It was actually Turkish Empires such as Turgish Empire and 2nd Gokturk Empire who played the aggressive guy, trying to invade arabic lands. but Uighur, Karluk, Basmil alliance changed much things. Gokturks were demolished and Uighurs took control. In those days Talas occured, Chinese attacked arabs. We saved the arabs , like we saved them in the Crusades.



Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 12:49

Originally posted by Ptolemy

There is some evidence that Egyptians may have helped the Arabs with their conquest (or so I hear).

at the time of Conquesting Persia, egypt was already part of the Caliphat so if there was some Egyptians in the Army led by Khalid bin AL-Waleed Doesnt mean they helped, they were part of the country.

i found this map showing the expansion of Arabs untill the Ummayad who were More Arabic than the later Abbasids

 



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Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 12:57
Originally posted by HulaguHan

I copied the following from Wikipedia

Do not cut and paste when it comes to historical facts. Rely on the respective book such as Rene Grousset' s Empire of the steps.

Among these generals was the teen-aged Muhammad bin Qasim, who in 712 was sent to Sindh in India. Compared to his general Hajjaj was more hardline insisting that pagans (or those who were not people of the book) be killed or enslaved.

Qutaibah bin Muslim was sent to conquer Turkestan which he did, even penetrating the borders of China and getting a tribute payment from the Chinese emperor. Perhaps his most successful general was Musa bin Nusair who consolidated control over North Africa and who sent Tariq bin Ziyad to invade Spain.

 

Qutaiba conwuered Sogdia todays Uzbekistan which was a PErsian region those days. Turks invade there correct but that region became Turkiified in the times of Timurlenk.

There was no Turkestan in those days. Turkestan is a new region ans is the word given to the region of

Western Turkistan

Turkmenistan , Uzbekistan, Kazakhistan, Kirghizistan

Eastern Turkistan

Uighur region in China.

In India conquests were achieved by first Ghaznavids then Timurid Baburs.

You did not reach Chinese border. You invaded Tashkent, Chinese attacked you, it was Chinese who reached arabs. 

You should thank us, Karluk assault from north saved you from chinese slaughter in Talas.

Look at the map and see where Talas is. See whether China or Abbasids (who were mainly Persian, that is another story) made the campaign.

those were arabs not turkish

Ghazne Empire and Babur Empire are pure Turkish, pure...

 

i copied that just becouse it is English text talking about Islamic early expansion for more detailed history about islam i will have to check the Arabic Books the early once i wont rely on some strangers trying to tell us our history

iam talking at the period of the 7th century not the 14th century

the Generals at that times were Arabs Not Turkish

Turkish didnt come to power before the 10th century

and about China

if the chinese were able to destroy us and they did reach Arabic land why the hell the Chinese Emperore sends Gifts to the Caliphate?

 

 



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Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 13:03

more maps

this one at year 661 AD

this one at year  750  ( the Ummayads)

 

 



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Posted By: HulaguHan
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 16:48

I honestly accept Arabic Empire was the strongest of its time in the first half of 8th centry. It was as great as Alexander' s Empire, sure. I have no doubt.

BUT

Take a look at this map, this has nothing conquered in Chinese and Indian territory.

If you say you came to Chinese territory, you are wrong. It was Chinese who attacked you but it was Tukish-Arabic alliance who beat Chinese so that they bowed down before all of us. Karluk Turks terminated their infantry. They sent you gifts but Uighur Turks did not consider the gifts sent to them, they invaded China.

Only the original Persian lands of Sogdia and Khwarizm; Khorasan (Afghanistand and Pakistan) is conquered in this map, actually Sogdia was temporarily conquered by Gokturks in 7th century however after Gokturk Empire was crashed by Chinese, we lost the control, Sogdians became independent. Even we do not consider these lands Turkified until the times of Timur, even in the times of Seljuks,  Khwarizm Shahdom, or Karahanids, land was Persian dominated.

Turkistan is a new region. After the Cengiz invasions, Turks settled to the place and Persians immigrated west to escape from slaughter. In the times of Timurlenk (Tamerlane), Semerkand was rebuilt, the inhabitants were mostly Turkmen. Later Uzbeks invaded Turkmen lands and destroyed Timurlenk' s Empire. Still Semerkand is in Uzbek hands today.

Turkmens moved west. For example Todays Turkmenistan is totally unrelated to the lands of Oguz (Turkmens) in 8th century. Those days Turks were living approximately same axis but to the north. lets say Mongolia and southern Russia. But Russian Invasions, and Chinese invasions pushed Turks to those regions.

India was first conquered by Ghaznavids, later whole conquest was done by Baburids (Mughals).

Significant conquests of Arabic Empire is actually the invasion of Iberia (Tariq Ibn Ziad), Persia (King Omer), Sogdia (Governer Qutaiba ibn Muslim). Well also the Roman Africa was conquered.

Originally posted by azimuth

 



Posted By: HulaguHan
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 21:04

You did a good job Azimuth, very succesful start; however, could not keep it for the long term. Alexanders Empire was far more fragile than yours, do not worry, today world is Crusader oriented. I do not believe in western-eastern civilization. But most believes. I believe there is always one civilization and it can be anywhere in the world. They try to think a world which does not include, Chinese, Turks, Russians, Arabs, Persians, etc... We can not compare Arabic Empire and Hellenic Empire. Arabic Empire had better state organization. Alexanders Empire shattered after his death.

For the battle of Talas, celebrate it, it is your right, since you are one part of the alliance., but do not forget Karluks.

If we were not there result might be different.

People forget them. Always forget them.

Invading China is not a good thing, look at us, we invaded there, but they assimilated us. Yuan Dynasty.

However Timurlenk prepared an attack to china, to make them Muslim. I am sure he could do that but he prefered to fight against his brothers...



Posted By: HulaguHan
Date Posted: 06-Feb-2005 at 21:06

This is the conwuest of India:

Mughals you know them, we Call them Babur Empire:

http://www.mcah.columbia.edu/dbcourses/dehejia/large/mughal_stronge02_map_062102.jpg">



Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 07-Feb-2005 at 11:44

Originally posted by HulaguHan

Take a look at this map, this has nothing conquered in Chinese and Indian territory..

well when i said India i didnt mean all Indian contenet, the most eastern part was called india too Pakistan was called india

and the northeastern part of that map was the Borderes of the Chinese Empire and Arabs Crossed it

when they say Alexander reached india they mean the area which is now Pakistan

Arabs went more north than Alexander's Army

the Macedonian Empire map

 



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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 06-Oct-2007 at 05:29
Okay lets get this thing straight. Pakistan was never ever called India. No one here called the place "India". Sindh is in Pakistan.
 
The Arabs went as far as Lahore, but the lost the Punjab pretty quickly, the Jehlum remained a sort of boundry for centuries. It was in 1200 when the Khiljis and the rest went into what is now Bahrat the republic of India.
 


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Posted By: azimuth
Date Posted: 06-Oct-2007 at 13:30
lol  this thread started in Dec 2004, one of my first posts on this forum was here. how nice,Big%20smile
 
anyway i'll replay later when i have more time to search and double check what i wrote.
 
 
 


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 06-Oct-2007 at 14:38
Trying to revive the PCME forum needs work!

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Posted By: arch.buff
Date Posted: 15-Oct-2007 at 19:32
Originally posted by Temujin

sow aht? Islamic architecture spreads from Spain to Indonesia and from Africa to Russian Tatarstan province and Chinese Xinjiang province, how far did Hellenism spread?
 
Sorry but I must clear some things up here with this naive post. At its roots Islamic architecture is based on Persian and Roman, largely Roman(Byzantine). In turn, Romans themselves were very largely influenced by Hellenestic architecture. Of course this is not to say that Islamic architecture didnt develop into its own. I very muchly like Islamic architecture as it is very artistic but we musnt get ahead of ourselves and forget where the influence of certain peoples and cultures come from.


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Be a servant to all, that is a quality of a King.


Posted By: andrew
Date Posted: 15-Oct-2007 at 23:59
Originally posted by arch.buff

Originally posted by Temujin

sow aht? Islamic architecture spreads from Spain to Indonesia and from Africa to Russian Tatarstan province and Chinese Xinjiang province, how far did Hellenism spread?
 
Sorry but I must clear some things up here with this naive post. At its roots Islamic architecture is based on Persian and Roman, largely Roman(Byzantine). In turn, Romans themselves were very largely influenced by Hellenestic architecture. Of course this is not to say that Islamic architecture didnt develop into its own. I very muchly like Islamic architecture as it is very artistic but we musnt get ahead of ourselves and forget where the influence of certain peoples and cultures come from.
 
Not necceraily true arch.buff. The reason Islamic architecture seams to look like Byzantine architecture is because when we think of Islamic civilization in the western world we think of the Ottoman/Seljuk Turks. Arabs were great fertilizers of other people's culture. They developed styles of Persian, Egyptian, and Greek building techniques.
 
You're right Islamic archtecture was just a modifyed form of Middle East architecture but you make it seem it was Western and it is definitely not it was very Eastern.


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 16-Oct-2007 at 17:11
It was a fusion as befits the region it arose in.

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Posted By: arch.buff
Date Posted: 16-Oct-2007 at 23:11
Originally posted by andrew

Originally posted by arch.buff

Originally posted by Temujin

sow aht? Islamic architecture spreads from Spain to Indonesia and from Africa to Russian Tatarstan province and Chinese Xinjiang province, how far did Hellenism spread?
 
Sorry but I must clear some things up here with this naive post. At its roots Islamic architecture is based on Persian and Roman, largely Roman(Byzantine). In turn, Romans themselves were very largely influenced by Hellenestic architecture. Of course this is not to say that Islamic architecture didnt develop into its own. I very muchly like Islamic architecture as it is very artistic but we musnt get ahead of ourselves and forget where the influence of certain peoples and cultures come from.
 
Not necceraily true arch.buff. The reason Islamic architecture seams to look like Byzantine architecture is because when we think of Islamic civilization in the western world we think of the Ottoman/Seljuk Turks. Arabs were great fertilizers of other people's culture. They developed styles of Persian, Egyptian, and Greek building techniques.
 
You're right Islamic archtecture was just a modifyed form of Middle East architecture but you make it seem it was Western and it is definitely not it was very Eastern.
 
 
Hello andrew, I am sorry if my post seems simple, as it does after re-reading it. Maybe I should clear some things up. The reason Islamic architecture looks like Byzantine architecture is because it was heavly influenced by it, I dont understand the arguement with this. Just type it in google and you will find an abundant amount of sources. And you are absolutely right as far as Arabs fertilizing other cultures such as the ones you listed, Persian, Greek, and Egyptian. As Islamic architecture aslo borrowed from these cultures as well. One needs only to observe my favorite mosque, The Dome of the Rock, one of the earliest mosques, to see the great influence of Roman(Byzantine) architecture. For your claims of western/eastern....whos to say?? Would you classify Byzantine as western or eastrern?? As it did differ from classical Roman. Would you classify classical Greek as eastern or western?? After all they were influenced by Pharaonic architecture. Its all relative, but I would agree we have a rough classification but the lines become a lil blurred when we look into the history of a subject such as colorful as architecture.
 
http://www.insinet.net/ajbas/153-156.pdf - www.insinet.net/ajbas/153-156.pdf
 
 
 


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Be a servant to all, that is a quality of a King.


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 18-Oct-2007 at 12:07
For your claims of western/eastern....whos to say?? Would you classify Byzantine as western or eastrern?? As it did differ from classical Roman. Would you classify classical Greek as eastern or western??

Seeing as it was the Eastern Roman Empire that was the original East. I don't think it is in anyway far to regard the Eastern empire as Western.

East vs West = Eastern Roman Empire vs Western Roman Empire originally.

And of course, the Persians Egyptians and Greeks are certainly not western.


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Posted By: The Hidden Face
Date Posted: 18-Oct-2007 at 12:30
Exactly Omar. It's the Middle Eastern Roman empire.


Posted By: arch.buff
Date Posted: 18-Oct-2007 at 16:59
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

For your claims of western/eastern....whos to say?? Would you classify Byzantine as western or eastrern?? As it did differ from classical Roman. Would you classify classical Greek as eastern or western??

Seeing as it was the Eastern Roman Empire that was the original East. I don't think it is in anyway far to regard the Eastern empire as Western.

East vs West = Eastern Roman Empire vs Western Roman Empire originally.

And of course, the Persians Egyptians and Greeks are certainly not western.
 
It may appear very cut and dry to you, this labeling but it certainly isnt for many. Greeks obviously not being western?? I know many would pause at that statement.
 
And if the Romans were so western why did the take so much from the "eastern" greeks? You see there isnt always such a cut and dry line between the two, for instance the Eastern Roman Empire under Constantine would probably seem very "western", but that same culture under Constantine X appeared to western Europe as the "oriental eastern". Label them if you wish but to me the line becomes a little foggy depending on the view 


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Be a servant to all, that is a quality of a King.


Posted By: andrew
Date Posted: 18-Oct-2007 at 20:43
Originally posted by arch.buff

Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

For your claims of western/eastern....whos to say?? Would you classify Byzantine as western or eastrern?? As it did differ from classical Roman. Would you classify classical Greek as eastern or western??

Seeing as it was the Eastern Roman Empire that was the original East. I don't think it is in anyway far to regard the Eastern empire as Western.

East vs West = Eastern Roman Empire vs Western Roman Empire originally.

And of course, the Persians Egyptians and Greeks are certainly not western.
 
It may appear very cut and dry to you, this labeling but it certainly isnt for many. Greeks obviously not being western?? I know many would pause at that statement.
 
And if the Romans were so western why did the take so much from the "eastern" greeks? You see there isnt always such a cut and dry line between the two, for instance the Eastern Roman Empire under Constantine would probably seem very "western", but that same culture under Constantine X appeared to western Europe as the "oriental eastern". Label them if you wish but to me the line becomes a little foggy depending on the view 
 
I agree on this. Greece is considered the start of the Western Civilization. Much of the culture was homegrown, Black and White scholars debate this, this is whay Greek Civilization is so controversial, which then would influence Rome and the rest of the world. Greece after all is considered part of Europe and if you start learning Western Civilization you start with Greece.


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 19-Oct-2007 at 01:47
Western vs Eastern is little more than us vs them, so people will always be shifting the boundries to suit which ever claim they wish. It isn't cut and dry at all.
I'm saying the original East vs West, was the Western Roman Empire, vs the Eastern Roman Empire. So regarding the Eastern Empire and western is not something that should be done. The eastern roman empire is as western as the Ottoman Empire.

What we should be talking about it cultural groups, rather than east & west abstractions. Culturally, Greeks, Egyptians, Syrians and Arabs are in the same group (doubly so in modern times), so Arab architecture naturally is very similar to these groups. This is Roman influence, because Greeks, Egyptians and Syrians were Romans, but Roman is not a synonum for western. Arabs were not influenced by Germanic and Celtic architecture (ignoring Spain)

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Posted By: Reginmund
Date Posted: 21-Oct-2007 at 13:05
I agree with most of what you're saying, Omar al Hashim, but there are however a few problems with grouping the Greeks together with the Egyptians, Syrians and Arabs.
 
First, if we are to claim the ERE was as western as the Ottoman Empire, we must disregard the fact that the ERE was primarily the heir of a Graeco-Roman cultural tradition which sprang from Greece and Italy, whereas the Ottoman Empire was primarily the heir of an oriental tradition of empire inherited from the Caliphates. Of course it could be argued the Caliphates themselves were heirs of the Graeco-Roman tradition as well, but I would say this is mostly true for the Ummajads and less so for the later Abassids, who ruled more in extension of Persian than Roman traditions.
 
Second, it is problematic to group the Greeks, modern and ancient, with Arabs, Syrians and Egyptians based on similarities in architecture derived from a shared Graeco-Roman heritage. These were influences which in ancient times went -from- Greece to f.ex. Arab lands, not vice versa, and whereas Greek influence would make the Arabs "more Greek" if you will, the Greeks would not become "more Arab" by influencing them.
 
Further, architecture is but one aspect among many, and religion has perhaps the strongest impact of them all. You need go no further than the Greek-Turkish border to find the dividing line between a culture which has developed in extension of Christian traditions and one which has developed (until recently at least) in extension of Islamic traditions, with all the cultural baggage this brings with it. Sure, it is unproblematic to argue that all the lands in the eastern Mediterranean share some traits, but to group the Greeks with Syrians and Arabs rather than the Italians and Slavs needs a stronger case.


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Posted By: The Hidden Face
Date Posted: 21-Oct-2007 at 14:26
We discussed this before If I recall correctly. But anyway, I believe the West means Western Europe and its civilization, so I think that saying that Greek civilization is Western civilization is problematic from the historical point of view. It may be safe to say that Western civilization is a Greek civilization, or rather Western civilization is an imitation of Greek civilization. Just because ancient Greeks and their civilization influenced Western Europeans doesn't mean that ancient Greeks were Westerners.

We can safely claim that the Eastern Roman empire was as western as the Ottoman Empire on the basis of the fact that none of them were a product of Western Europe.


Posted By: Reginmund
Date Posted: 21-Oct-2007 at 14:32
Definitions of "the West" vary and your definition is but one of them, according to which of course you are right, and this is the way definitions are often used. In general however you will rarely find a scholarly consensus on definitions; they are among the most disputed subjects as they are a decisive factor in any historical treatise.

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Posted By: The Hidden Face
Date Posted: 21-Oct-2007 at 15:00
Very good point, Reginmund. It's actually a matter of definition, indeed. As we are, professional or amateur, historians, we should define it objectively and historically correctly. 


Posted By: Kapikulu
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2007 at 23:56
Originally posted by andrew

 if you start learning Western Civilization you start with Greece.
 
Yes, pretty much so because of the adoption of Ancient Greek values, principles, and even material aspects like architecture etc. as "Western Culture"


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We gave up your happiness
Your hope would be enough;
we couldn't find neither;
we made up sorrows for ourselves;
we couldn't be consoled;

A Strange Orhan Veli



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