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Origin of the Indo-Europeans

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  Quote Arthur-Robin Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Origin of the Indo-Europeans
    Posted: 23-Jul-2013 at 12:27

(P)IE must come from either Japheth, Ham or Shem. I haven't been able to figure out which one yet. But the pre-/Greek seems to come from Javan.



Edited by Arthur-Robin - 23-Jul-2013 at 12:28
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 23-Jul-2013 at 15:41

There are some interesting words which show there were some cultural relations between Germanic, Semitic, North Caucasian and Hurro-Urartian languages in the late third millennium BC.

One of these words is "burg" which means "tower", the original word seems to be "burgana" which was used by the Hurro-Urartians in the north Mesopotamia and Anatolia, but this word was borrowed into some old languages in the region from the late third millennium BC, like Proto-North Caucasian *bŏrGwV̄, Proto-Germanic: *burg-z, *burgia-n and in some Semitic languages, such as Aramaean burgin, Syriac burga and Arabic Burj.

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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2013 at 13:51
Originally posted by TITAN_

What really happened was that the so-called Aryan zone (Greater Iran) was only one stop of a long journey, not the beginning of anything at all.
 

In conclusion, at this time, nobody really knows where the Greater Aryan zone (Urheimat) was, but as far as the homeland Aryans in the restricted sense (Irano-Afghans) or Aryana there is more certainty.  I don't think its fair to say they weren't the beginning of anything.  Zarathushtra was an Aryan and he was the most influential figure who ever lived because he was responsible for the primary religious heritage of the West having contributed to the core belief system of the Abrahamic people.

Mycenaean Greek is not as old as the language of the Indo-Aryan Mittani is it?  Nevertheless, I'd like to point out that as ancient as Mycenaean Greek may be it died out a long time ago.  It doesn't live on in any of the Greek languages spoken today.  Old Persian lives on in New Persian and Pashto shows Avestan reflexes.  

I was however surprised to hear such a confident identification of the Gutians.  I've heard that they were related to the Goths before, but I didn't know this was certain.  I've also come across links to Tocharian and the Jats.
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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jul-2013 at 13:53
Sorry Greater Aryan zone should really correspond to the Indo-European zone, and Urhiemat would designate the PIE homeland. 
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  Quote TITAN_ Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jul-2013 at 14:12
Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

What really happened was that the so-called Aryan zone (Greater Iran) was only one stop of a long journey, not the beginning of anything at all.
 

Mycenaean Greek is not as old as the language of the Indo-Aryan Mittani is it?  Nevertheless, I'd like to point out that as ancient as Mycenaean Greek may be it died out a long time ago.  It doesn't live on in any of the Greek languages spoken today.  Old Persian lives on in New Persian and Pashto shows Avestan reflexes.  




Incorrect statements:

Mycanean Greek was attested in 1400-1450 BC for the first time, but it was spoken way earlier than that, probably since 2000 BC. That is archaic Greek and did not die out at all. Thousands of words still exist today. Some of them did not even change at all. They sound exactly like modern Greek, 3500 years later....


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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jul-2013 at 17:57
Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

What really happened was that the so-called Aryan zone (Greater Iran) was only one stop of a long journey, not the beginning of anything at all.
 

Mycenaean Greek is not as old as the language of the Indo-Aryan Mittani is it?  Nevertheless, I'd like to point out that as ancient as Mycenaean Greek may be it died out a long time ago.  It doesn't live on in any of the Greek languages spoken today.  Old Persian lives on in New Persian and Pashto shows Avestan reflexes.  




Incorrect statements:

Mycanean Greek was attested in 1400-1450 BC for the first time, but it was spoken way earlier than that, probably since 2000 BC. That is archaic Greek and did not die out at all. Thousands of words still exist today. Some of them did not even change at all. They sound exactly like modern Greek, 3500 years later....



Mycenean Greek was spoken way earlier than 2000?  You could say the same thing about Avestan or Sanskrit.  The earliest date for the Avesta is 1700 BCE, was it spoken before then, probably as early as BMAC (2300-1700 BCE) culture which shows all the elements of typical Zoroastrianism: Fire Temples, Haoama Ritual, Exhumation.  

And just because Modern Greek words may be exact cognates of Myceneaen doesn't mean they descended from Myceneaen.  To the best of my knowledge Epic Greek (Ionic) words are the oldest, but few mixed in with Attic which developed into Koine.  Then there is Spartan.  Both Koine lives on in Ktharevusa and Demoitic.  Spartan lives on in Tsakonian and Greciano.  What descendent of Mycenean are you referring too?
 


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  Quote TITAN_ Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Jul-2013 at 07:10
Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

What really happened was that the so-called Aryan zone (Greater Iran) was only one stop of a long journey, not the beginning of anything at all.
 

Mycenaean Greek is not as old as the language of the Indo-Aryan Mittani is it?  Nevertheless, I'd like to point out that as ancient as Mycenaean Greek may be it died out a long time ago.  It doesn't live on in any of the Greek languages spoken today.  Old Persian lives on in New Persian and Pashto shows Avestan reflexes.  




Incorrect statements:

Mycanean Greek was attested in 1400-1450 BC for the first time, but it was spoken way earlier than that, probably since 2000 BC. That is archaic Greek and did not die out at all. Thousands of words still exist today. Some of them did not even change at all. They sound exactly like modern Greek, 3500 years later....



Mycenean Greek was spoken way earlier than 2000?  You could say the same thing about Avestan or Sanskrit.  The earliest date for the Avesta is 1700 BCE, was it spoken before then, probably as early as BMAC (2300-1700 BCE) culture which shows all the elements of typical Zoroastrianism: Fire Temples, Haoama Ritual, Exhumation.  

And just because Modern Greek words may be exact cognates of Myceneaen doesn't mean they descended from Myceneaen.  To the best of my knowledge Epic Greek (Ionic) words are the oldest, but few mixed in with Attic which developed into Koine.  Then there is Spartan.  Both Koine lives on in Ktharevusa and Demoitic.  Spartan lives on in Tsakonian and Greciano.  What descendent of Mycenean are you referring too?



First off, the Sanskrit language was not attested as a language before 300 BC, because neither Brahmi script was used to write Sanskrit words, nor the language was attested as a whole. You only find some words similar to Sanskrit words in earlier scripts, not the actual Sanskrit language. Those 1700 BC texts are NOT sanskrit texts. The same applies to old Persian which was only written down since  Cyrus' era (6th century BC).

Second, it is 100000000% verified that Mycenaean archaic Greek gave birth to Classical Greek and consequently to modern Greek, because words like Ares (Mars), rapti (tailor) etc. sound the same in  modern Greek and have the exact same meaning. So it is impossible to assume that something else has happened. This is crystal clear. The archaic Greek language evolved over the last 3500-4000 years without interruption, whatsoever.

The only major transformation was that of the alphabet. The original Greek Linear B script (1400-1100 BC) was replaced by the alphabet that is still in use today.


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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Jul-2013 at 17:20
Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

What really happened was that the so-called Aryan zone (Greater Iran) was only one stop of a long journey, not the beginning of anything at all.
 

Mycenaean Greek is not as old as the language of the Indo-Aryan Mittani is it?  Nevertheless, I'd like to point out that as ancient as Mycenaean Greek may be it died out a long time ago.  It doesn't live on in any of the Greek languages spoken today.  Old Persian lives on in New Persian and Pashto shows Avestan reflexes.  




Incorrect statements:

Mycanean Greek was attested in 1400-1450 BC for the first time, but it was spoken way earlier than that, probably since 2000 BC. That is archaic Greek and did not die out at all. Thousands of words still exist today. Some of them did not even change at all. They sound exactly like modern Greek, 3500 years later....



Mycenean Greek was spoken way earlier than 2000?  You could say the same thing about Avestan or Sanskrit.  The earliest date for the Avesta is 1700 BCE, was it spoken before then, probably as early as BMAC (2300-1700 BCE) culture which shows all the elements of typical Zoroastrianism: Fire Temples, Haoama Ritual, Exhumation.  

And just because Modern Greek words may be exact cognates of Myceneaen doesn't mean they descended from Myceneaen.  To the best of my knowledge Epic Greek (Ionic) words are the oldest, but few mixed in with Attic which developed into Koine.  Then there is Spartan.  Both Koine lives on in Ktharevusa and Demoitic.  Spartan lives on in Tsakonian and Greciano.  What descendent of Mycenean are you referring too?



First off, the Sanskrit language was not attested as a language before 300 BC, because neither Brahmi script was used to write Sanskrit words, nor the language was attested as a whole. You only find some words similar to Sanskrit words in earlier scripts, not the actual Sanskrit language. Those 1700 BC texts are NOT sanskrit texts. The same applies to old Persian which was only written down since  Cyrus' era (6th century BC).

Second, it is 100000000% verified that Mycenaean archaic Greek gave birth to Classical Greek and consequently to modern Greek, because words like Ares (Mars), rapti (tailor) etc. sound the same in  modern Greek and have the exact same meaning. So it is impossible to assume that something else has happened. This is crystal clear. The archaic Greek language evolved over the last 3500-4000 years without interruption, whatsoever.

The only major transformation was that of the alphabet. The original Greek Linear B script (1400-1100 BC) was replaced by the alphabet that is still in use today.



Your rundown of the linguistic facts appears to be a little naive.  Sanskrit is believed to have been attested as early as Avestan.  Neither Sanskrit or Avestan were fixed in writing until much later in the history.  But you have to understand that just because Mycenean was fixed on tablets doesn't tell us much.  You can't carbon date a tablet.  Linguists use the same  extra-linguistic and paelolinguistic and archeological methodology to determine the dates of all these languages.  

As far as Mycenean developing into Classical Greek you're going to have to show me some sources before I buy that.  I see no evidence of that anywhere.  Like I said just because words are cognate to Mycenaean in Modern Greek doesn't mean that they developed from Mycenaean.  Chances are they developed from Ionian, Attic, or Spartan.   
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  Quote TheAlaniDragonRising Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Jul-2013 at 17:49
It is unlikely that you're going to find anything to do with Mycenaean developing into classical Greek in a written form, and for a very good reason. Classical Greek, in the written form developed from Phoenician. The reason is that with the collapse of the Mycenaean civilization their writing vanished, to be replaced a few hundred years later with a Phoenician representation of the language existing there at the time. 
What a handsome figure of a dragon. No wonder I fall madly in love with the Alani Dragon now, the avatar, it's a gorgeous dragon picture.
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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Jul-2013 at 18:48
Originally posted by TheAlaniDragonRising

It is unlikely that you're going to find anything to do with Mycenaean developing into classical Greek in a written form, and for a very good reason. Classical Greek, in the written form developed from Phoenician. The reason is that with the collapse of the Mycenaean civilization their writing vanished, to be replaced a few hundred years later with a Phoenician representation of the language existing there at the time. 

Are you agreeing with Titan?
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  Quote TITAN_ Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 31-Jul-2013 at 07:41
Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

What really happened was that the so-called Aryan zone (Greater Iran) was only one stop of a long journey, not the beginning of anything at all.
 

Mycenaean Greek is not as old as the language of the Indo-Aryan Mittani is it?  Nevertheless, I'd like to point out that as ancient as Mycenaean Greek may be it died out a long time ago.  It doesn't live on in any of the Greek languages spoken today.  Old Persian lives on in New Persian and Pashto shows Avestan reflexes.  




Incorrect statements:

Mycanean Greek was attested in 1400-1450 BC for the first time, but it was spoken way earlier than that, probably since 2000 BC. That is archaic Greek and did not die out at all. Thousands of words still exist today. Some of them did not even change at all. They sound exactly like modern Greek, 3500 years later....



Mycenean Greek was spoken way earlier than 2000?  You could say the same thing about Avestan or Sanskrit.  The earliest date for the Avesta is 1700 BCE, was it spoken before then, probably as early as BMAC (2300-1700 BCE) culture which shows all the elements of typical Zoroastrianism: Fire Temples, Haoama Ritual, Exhumation.  

And just because Modern Greek words may be exact cognates of Myceneaen doesn't mean they descended from Myceneaen.  To the best of my knowledge Epic Greek (Ionic) words are the oldest, but few mixed in with Attic which developed into Koine.  Then there is Spartan.  Both Koine lives on in Ktharevusa and Demoitic.  Spartan lives on in Tsakonian and Greciano.  What descendent of Mycenean are you referring too?



First off, the Sanskrit language was not attested as a language before 300 BC, because neither Brahmi script was used to write Sanskrit words, nor the language was attested as a whole. You only find some words similar to Sanskrit words in earlier scripts, not the actual Sanskrit language. Those 1700 BC texts are NOT sanskrit texts. The same applies to old Persian which was only written down since  Cyrus' era (6th century BC).

Second, it is 100000000% verified that Mycenaean archaic Greek gave birth to Classical Greek and consequently to modern Greek, because words like Ares (Mars), rapti (tailor) etc. sound the same in  modern Greek and have the exact same meaning. So it is impossible to assume that something else has happened. This is crystal clear. The archaic Greek language evolved over the last 3500-4000 years without interruption, whatsoever.

The only major transformation was that of the alphabet. The original Greek Linear B script (1400-1100 BC) was replaced by the alphabet that is still in use today.



Your rundown of the linguistic facts appears to be a little naive.  Sanskrit is believed to have been attested as early as Avestan.  Neither Sanskrit or Avestan were fixed in writing until much later in the history.  But you have to understand that just because Mycenean was fixed on tablets doesn't tell us much.  You can't carbon date a tablet.  Linguists use the same  extra-linguistic and paelolinguistic and archeological methodology to determine the dates of all these languages.  

As far as Mycenean developing into Classical Greek you're going to have to show me some sources before I buy that.  I see no evidence of that anywhere.  Like I said just because words are cognate to Mycenaean in Modern Greek doesn't mean that they developed from Mycenaean.  Chances are they developed from Ionian, Attic, or Spartan.   




Clay tablets can be dated, actually. The earliest Linear B Greek tablets date back to 1350-1450 BC, according to respected universities and professors in Greece and elsewhere. Texts in Sanskrit date back to 300 BC (Ashoka's edicts is the best example).

Again, Spartan, Attic and Ionian Greek were only attested when the Greek alphabet was formed, back in 800 BC. That is 500 years after Linear B! We cannot speculate without written evidence, like you suggest. Mycenae, according to current archaeological evidence, was the oldest city in Greece to have a proper big palace and it was a city/kingdom/state with proper infrastructure, since 1600 BC. Sparta and Athens were still villages back then. They didn't even use Linear B to write down official documents. So, we simply don't know what kind of vocabulary they used.
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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 31-Jul-2013 at 09:34
Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

Originally posted by mojobadshah

Originally posted by TITAN_

What really happened was that the so-called Aryan zone (Greater Iran) was only one stop of a long journey, not the beginning of anything at all.
 

Mycenaean Greek is not as old as the language of the Indo-Aryan Mittani is it?  Nevertheless, I'd like to point out that as ancient as Mycenaean Greek may be it died out a long time ago.  It doesn't live on in any of the Greek languages spoken today.  Old Persian lives on in New Persian and Pashto shows Avestan reflexes.  




Incorrect statements:

Mycanean Greek was attested in 1400-1450 BC for the first time, but it was spoken way earlier than that, probably since 2000 BC. That is archaic Greek and did not die out at all. Thousands of words still exist today. Some of them did not even change at all. They sound exactly like modern Greek, 3500 years later....



Mycenean Greek was spoken way earlier than 2000?  You could say the same thing about Avestan or Sanskrit.  The earliest date for the Avesta is 1700 BCE, was it spoken before then, probably as early as BMAC (2300-1700 BCE) culture which shows all the elements of typical Zoroastrianism: Fire Temples, Haoama Ritual, Exhumation.  

And just because Modern Greek words may be exact cognates of Myceneaen doesn't mean they descended from Myceneaen.  To the best of my knowledge Epic Greek (Ionic) words are the oldest, but few mixed in with Attic which developed into Koine.  Then there is Spartan.  Both Koine lives on in Ktharevusa and Demoitic.  Spartan lives on in Tsakonian and Greciano.  What descendent of Mycenean are you referring too?



First off, the Sanskrit language was not attested as a language before 300 BC, because neither Brahmi script was used to write Sanskrit words, nor the language was attested as a whole. You only find some words similar to Sanskrit words in earlier scripts, not the actual Sanskrit language. Those 1700 BC texts are NOT sanskrit texts. The same applies to old Persian which was only written down since  Cyrus' era (6th century BC).

Second, it is 100000000% verified that Mycenaean archaic Greek gave birth to Classical Greek and consequently to modern Greek, because words like Ares (Mars), rapti (tailor) etc. sound the same in  modern Greek and have the exact same meaning. So it is impossible to assume that something else has happened. This is crystal clear. The archaic Greek language evolved over the last 3500-4000 years without interruption, whatsoever.

The only major transformation was that of the alphabet. The original Greek Linear B script (1400-1100 BC) was replaced by the alphabet that is still in use today.



Your rundown of the linguistic facts appears to be a little naive.  Sanskrit is believed to have been attested as early as Avestan.  Neither Sanskrit or Avestan were fixed in writing until much later in the history.  But you have to understand that just because Mycenean was fixed on tablets doesn't tell us much.  You can't carbon date a tablet.  Linguists use the same  extra-linguistic and paelolinguistic and archeological methodology to determine the dates of all these languages.  

As far as Mycenean developing into Classical Greek you're going to have to show me some sources before I buy that.  I see no evidence of that anywhere.  Like I said just because words are cognate to Mycenaean in Modern Greek doesn't mean that they developed from Mycenaean.  Chances are they developed from Ionian, Attic, or Spartan.   




Clay tablets can be dated, actually. The earliest Linear B Greek tablets date back to 1350-1450 BC, according to respected universities and professors in Greece and elsewhere. Texts in Sanskrit date back to 300 BC (Ashoka's edicts is the best example).

Again, Spartan, Attic and Ionian Greek were only attested when the Greek alphabet was formed, back in 800 BC. That is 500 years after Linear B! We cannot speculate without written evidence, like you suggest. Mycenae, according to current archaeological evidence, was the oldest city in Greece to have a proper big palace and it was a city/kingdom/state with proper infrastructure, since 1600 BC. Sparta and Athens were still villages back then. They didn't even use Linear B to write down official documents. So, we simply don't know what kind of vocabulary they used.

That's interesting, but that's not enough evidence to prove that Mycenaean developed into Classical Greek.  It could have been developed by languages that were just never attested.  How do these Greek professors date the tablets?  Carbon dating only works with organic material.  In any case I probably should mention that Iranian loanwords are attested in Mycenaean.  Actually according to the legend Myceneae was founded by Perseus, and he was the father of the Persians.  
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  Quote chicagogeorge Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 12:19
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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 12:34
Originally posted by chicagogeorge

Mycenaean Greek did survive in many classical Greek dialects.



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This doesn't look to me like its saying Mycenaean lives on in Classic Greek dialects.  All I see is that it is related to East Greek dialect called Arcado-Cypriot, and Attic-Ionic.  
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  Quote chicagogeorge Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 13:41
What does "lives on" even mean? I'm not sure what you are actually claiming? What position do you think Mycenaean had in the development of the Greek language?

Over periods of hundreds of years, languages evolve and branch out




Here is the development of the Hellenic (Greek) language. 


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Edited by chicagogeorge - 13-Oct-2013 at 13:43
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  Quote mojobadshah Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 14:27
Originally posted by chicagogeorge

What does "lives on" even mean? I'm not sure what you are actually claiming? What position do you think Mycenaean had in the development of the Greek language?

Over periods of hundreds of years, languages evolve and branch out




Here is the development of the Hellenic (Greek) language. 


Uploaded with ImageShack.us

Well this map says something different than the article you posted.  The article you posted grouped Mycenean, Arcado-Cyprian, and Attic-Ionic in one eastern Greek group of dialects, and essentially that they are sisters.  But this map divides the Arcado-Cyprian and Attic-Ionic up and makes Arcado-Cyprian the descendant of Myceneaean.  First time I've seen that.  
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  Quote medenaywe Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 14:46
It is so a lower case.It reminds me about betting lists in betting house.Myth of Indo-Europeans was
written as prediction,what could have happened after 2000-3000 years maybe?!?
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  Quote PakistaniShield Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 17:26
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

I believe the earliest known Indo-European people were neither Iranians nor Greeks but the Germanic people, these Germanic people lived in the west of Iran from the fourth millennium bc, one of them named Guti/Goth conquered Sumer and formed and empire in the third millennium bc, from the second millennium bc Iranian-speaking people from the east and Greeks from the west (look at this thread: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=24888) invaded to Iran and forced the Germanic people to migrate to the northern lands through the Caucasus.



The earliest known IE peoples are now extinct. The Germanics closest proximity to Asia was somewhere in the northern Causes region from where they moved to Scandinavia.
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  Quote PakistaniShield Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 17:29
There is also an out of India theory pushed by some nationalists. The theory states that Indo-Europeans migrated out of northern  India . It's a popular theory in India, but rejected worldwide.
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  Quote chicagogeorge Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 13-Oct-2013 at 20:13
Originally posted by mojobadshah

 
Well this map says something different than the article you posted.  The article you posted grouped Mycenean, Arcado-Cyprian, and Attic-Ionic in one eastern Greek group of dialects, and essentially that they are sisters.  But this map divides the Arcado-Cyprian and Attic-Ionic up and makes Arcado-Cyprian the descendant of Myceneaean.  First time I've seen that.  


Attic-Ionic developed on the southern mainland western Asia Minor prior to the Dorian migrations. It stems for the same proto southern Greek dialect that  Arcado Cypriot was from. 


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Indo-European Languages Originated in Anatolia, Research Suggests

Aug. 23, 2012 — The Indo-European languages belong to one of the widest spread language families of the world. For the last two millenia, many of these languages have been written, and their history is relatively clear. But controversy remains about the time and place of the origins of the family. A large international team, including MPI researcher Michael Dunn, reports the results of an innovative Bayesian phylogeographic analysis of Indo-European linguistic and spatial data


The majority view in historical linguistics is that the homeland of Indo-European is located in the Pontic steppes (present day Ukraine) around 6,000 years ago. The evidence for this comes from linguistic paleontology: in particular, certain words to do with the technology of wheeled vehicles are arguably present across all the branches of the Indo-European family; and archaeology tells us that wheeled vehicles arose no earlier than this date. The minority view links the origins of Indo-European with the spread of farming from Anatolia 8,000 to 9,500 years ago.

Lexicons combined with dispersal of speakers

The minority view is decisively supported by the present analysis in this week's Science. This analysis combines a model of the evolution of the lexicons of individual languages with an explicit spatial model of the dispersal of the speakers of those languages. Known events in the past (the date of attestation dead languages, as well as events which can be fixed from archaeology or the historical record) are used to calibrate the inferred family tree against time.

Importance of phylogenetic trees

The lexical data used in this analysis come from the Indo-European Lexical Cognacy Database (IELex). This database has been developed in MPI's Evolutionary Processes in Language and Culture group, and provides a large, high-quality collection of language data suitable for phylogenetic analysis. Beyond the intrinsic interest of uncovering the history of language families and their speakers, phylogenetic trees are crucially important for understanding evolution and diversity in many human sciences, from syntax and semantics to social structure.

http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2012/08/120823175406.htm


another interesting read on this discovery

http://www.nytimes.com/2012/08/24/science/indo-european-languages-originated-in-anatolia-analysis-suggests.html?pagewanted=all&_r=0




Edited by chicagogeorge - 13-Oct-2013 at 20:21
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