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demon
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Topic: Where did the word "Latin America" came from? Posted: 20-Aug-2004 at 16:33 |
I was wondering why...
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Grrr..
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Roughneck
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Posted: 20-Aug-2004 at 16:35 |
Because most of it speaks Spanish, which is derived from Latin.
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Dari
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Posted: 20-Aug-2004 at 16:36 |
Not true at all. It was given that name because most of the people speak not just Spanish, but Portugese and French. And all these languages are desecended from Latin. Thus, "Latin America" was coined.
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Dari is a pimp master
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Cywr
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Posted: 20-Aug-2004 at 17:14 |
So is Guyana (mainly English speanking) and Surinam (Dutch) considered Latin America out of convienience?
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Arrrgh!!"
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Jalisco Lancer
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Posted: 20-Aug-2004 at 18:13 |
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Edited by Jalisco Lancer
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Imperatore Dario I
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Posted: 20-Aug-2004 at 19:24 |
Originally posted by Jalisco Lancer
The real name was Hispano America.
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And that should be the only term accepted! They're not Latins! They're LATINOS.
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Let there be a race of Romans with the strength of Italian courage.- Virgil's Aeneid
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Cywr
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Posted: 20-Aug-2004 at 19:32 |
But Hispano America would imply Spanish speaking America no? Where does that leave everyone else?
Latino is merely an Americanization (both American English and
Spanish) of Latin. Its intresting to note that the word Latino doesn't
exist in my big fat British English dictionary.
In English (both British and American), Latin can also mean 'derived
from Latin', which would include Portugese, Spanish, French, Italian,
Romanian etc. going by the Romance family thing, but then English is
almost half Latin to so it all starts to become somewhat meaningless.
Its also a catholic thing (mass is in Latin).
Meh, said labels are virtualy always political/culturaly determined
anyways so don't expect any logic, i mean, why does the whole world
call Germans Germans? They don't call themselves that in their
own language.
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Jalisco Lancer
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Posted: 21-Aug-2004 at 00:05 |
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Edited by Jalisco Lancer
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Cywr
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Posted: 21-Aug-2004 at 00:22 |
But the name for that is Iberia surely.
Hmm, wait.
*grabs Latin Dictionary*
Hispani -orum m. pl. [the Spaniards]; Hispania -ae , f. [the
whole of the Spanish peninsula]; adj. Hispaniensis -e, and Hispanus -a
-um. |
Hmm, the 'whole of the Spanish peninsula' bit could work, as back then
there was no seperate Portugal, but no Spain as we know it either.
Iberia comes from Hiber
Hiber -eris m. [an Iberian , Spaniard]; plur. Hiberes -erum, and
Hiberi -orum, m. [Spaniards]; Hiberus -i, m. [the river Ebro]; Hiberia
-ae, [Spain]; adj. Hibericus -a -um and Hiberus -a -um, [Spanish]. |
So both mean the same thing in a certain context.
But modern geography distinguises from Iberia (Spain and Portugal) and Hispania (just Spain),so it gets confusing.
Do we use classical definition, or modern? Meh, sod it. Call it "Nonyanquemerica"
Edited by Cywr
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Roughneck
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Posted: 21-Aug-2004 at 01:12 |
Originally posted by Dari
Not true at all. It was given that name because most of the people speak not just Spanish, but Portugese and French. And all these languages are desecended from Latin. Thus, "Latin America" was coined. |
Well then my version appears not to be "not true at all," but merely incomplete.
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Cornellia
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Posted: 21-Aug-2004 at 07:32 |
Now that could work.
There really are very few areas in Latin America that speak any language other than one of the romance languages so the term "Latin America" is very convenient when trying to refer to the entire region from Mexico on southwards.
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Felix qui potuit rerum cognoscere causas
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mauk4678
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Posted: 24-Aug-2004 at 10:57 |
I'v always wondered, could we not rightfully call Quebec "latin america"?
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Cywr
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Posted: 24-Aug-2004 at 19:35 |
I'v always wondered, could we not rightfully call Quebec "latin america"? |
I think its because in contemporary US culture, 'Latin' isn't merely a
linguistic technicality, but an 'ethnic minority' thing, and the
Quebecois are seen as 'white', and, even worse, Canadian .
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Roughneck
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Posted: 24-Aug-2004 at 20:05 |
Is that possibly why Games Workshop put the Dark elves in "Canada"? Do you guys really think that way?
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mauk4678
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Posted: 24-Aug-2004 at 20:38 |
O, I understand WHY we don't call them latins, im just trying to justify a brand new way to get under their skin .
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Guests
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Posted: 06-Sep-2004 at 09:56 |
In Spanish we used to use:
Iberoamrica: Comprising countries speaking Portuguese and Spanish in America.
Hispanoamrica: Countries speaking Spanish. Sometimes it is used to comprise Brazil as well since Roman Hispania was formed by current Spain and Portugal.
None of these terms included the Guyanas.
In a geographic way: South America (until Panama), Center America (from Panama to Guatemala or Yucatn) and North America (from Mexico to the Artic).
In the 19th century it was coined the "politically correct" term "Latin America" because:
1)It could be offensive to some people to call the peoples who had just got the independence with the name of the former metropolis.
2) US preferred to call them this way during the US - Spanish war (1898).
3) It was easier for the USians. This way we have now in English:
"The Americas": The whole continent. Former "America" only.
"North America": US and Canada.
"America": Just US.
"Latin America": South, Central America and Mexico
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Abyssmal Fiend
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Posted: 07-Sep-2004 at 19:55 |
No, we don't call ourselves Germans. Hell, we don't even call the language German. Then again, the French don't call themselves Franzosische, do they?
I'm pretty sure German is the only language that actually has German starting with a D. Which some of my American friends have taken up to call me a "Deutschlinga", don't ask. I don't know either.
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Cywr
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Posted: 07-Sep-2004 at 20:14 |
I'm pretty sure German is the only language that actually has German starting with a D. |
In Dutch (aka Nederlands) its Duits and Duitsland
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Quetzalcoatl
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Posted: 09-Sep-2004 at 19:31 |
French language is latin, but french racially is hardly latin.
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Cywr
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Posted: 09-Sep-2004 at 19:34 |
Latin is just a language thing, you can't realisticly claim its a
single race, unless you go around randomly ejecting Latins from it,
which kind of makes it non-Latin
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