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Colonist-Indian relations

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  Quote Mrhistoryguy23 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Colonist-Indian relations
    Posted: 06-Mar-2007 at 12:48
What's up guys? I'm just curious...

How do you think the nature of Euroamerican Interactions with Native Amercians changed from the 17th century to the mid-19th century? What would you argue was the primary reason for this change? Do agree with my argument that this interaction formed the basis for an emerging American Identity?????..., Why?....

Well..., im waiting..

Thanks,

Jonny Mentero...

Edited by Maharbbal - 06-Mar-2007 at 15:11
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  Quote pekau Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Mar-2007 at 14:29
Well, perhaps. I have a awful feeling that this question is copied straight from your assignment... (Making us to do work?)
 
By the way, I can't see whatever the image you posted.
 
I would say that the Native Americans declined ever since the arrival of Europeans. Canada coexisted with natives much better than the Americans purely because Canada was mostly French speaking people owned by small British people. Britain wanted to make sure that the power in Canada was divided so that French people couldn't get too much power. Plus the shortage of manpower in Canada compared to ambitious US caused Canada to seek more alliance with natives and getting more manpower in case of US invasion.
 
In America, native alliance was short lived. Due to the mass immigration from Europe and the firmly settled Thirteen Colonies... Indians were merely seen as the land occupiers. And anyway, the dieases and internal struggle between the natives made them weaker, and nearly wiped out from the face of the earth.
 
I would say that during WWI and WWII, the natives got more respects due to the incredibly shortage of manpower for the war. I remember that some of the US secret codes in the Pacific fronts against Japanese Empire was based on one of the native languages. Some natives served honorably in the wars, gaining respects from his European comrades.
 
Identity? Well, I am not sure for the America. Native identity in America was never strong...
     
   
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  Quote Mrhistoryguy23 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Mar-2007 at 14:50
I understand...
 
I think that natives were obviously just used and then thrown into the trash..., the real americans are our natives.., true or false?> This interaction which caused much war and distress then formed the new type of american. Americans to me are just now just europeans right?>
 
Have you ever read lepore's book "the name of war"? because that is where I got my argument of this emerging american identity... Its mostly about king philips war...
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Mar-2007 at 18:35
Bibliography

Sleeper-Smith, Susan. Indian Women and French Men: Rethinking Cultural Encounter in the Western Great Lakes. University of Massachusetts Press, Amherst: 2001.
Ed. Krech, Shepard. The Subartic Fur Trade: Native Social and Economic Adaptations. Ray, Arthur J. Periodic Shortages, Native Welfare, and the Hudsons Bay Company 1670-1930. University of British Columbia Press, Vancouver: 1984.

White, Richard. The middle ground: Indians, empires and republics in the Great Lakes region, 1650-1815. Cambridge University Press, Cambridge: 1991.

Bishop, Charles A. The Northern Ojibwa And The Fur Trade: An Historical And Ecological Study. Holt, Rinehat and Winston of Canada, Limited, Toronto: 1974.

Ed. Salisbury, Richard F; Tooker, Elisabeth. Affluence and Cultural Survival: 1981 Proceedings of The American Ethnological Society. Grument, Robert S. Managing the Fur Trade: The Coast Tsimishian to 1862. American Ethnological Society, USA: 1984.

Carlos, Ann: Lewis, Frank D. Trade, Consumption, and the Native Economy: Lessons from York Factory, Hudson Bay. Journal of Economic History 61 (December 2001).
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  Quote Mrhistoryguy23 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Mar-2007 at 19:13
i dont get it... :/
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Mar-2007 at 20:38

For me the pattern is clear. The first British settlers, and particularly the men of the fur trade, didn't have much problem with the interaction with Native americans. Interracial marriage was common as well.

But then, after the British left, perhaps, a flood of Europeans arrived in mass to the United States, and they needed more space, and they become codicious with the lands of the Natives that lived beyond the mountains. Then the attitude changed and the genocide started in large scale.
 
To save the poor and starving masses from Europe, a large scale crime against Natives was commited in the U.S., and that was the model for  Nazi germany. If someone does not believe it, just read Hitler.
 
 
Pinguin
 


Edited by pinguin - 06-Mar-2007 at 20:39
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  Quote Mrhistoryguy23 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Mar-2007 at 21:36
you have a point..., what do you think was the primary reason for their brutal actions with the natives? Did they want their names to be americans, or did they want to be more like "Im english, not american..."..
 
In other words, were their intentions like I want to take over for my country and name this land english also, or maybe like, take over and start a new country...?
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 00:58
Originally posted by Mrhistoryguy23

i dont get it... :/
 
Just some titles that I thought would be very helpful to you. The Middle Ground and Indian Women and French Men are two great titles for this topic. If you are doing a paper I urge you to check those two out, or even for personal reading as well. They are insightful.
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  Quote Aelfgifu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 06:45
Originally posted by pinguin

 If someone does not believe it, just read Hitler.

 
 

I can't. It is illegal.

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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 12:20
Originally posted by pinguin

To save the poor and starving masses from Europe, a large scale crime against Natives was commited in the U.S., and that was the model for  Nazi germany. If someone does not believe it, just read Hitler.


Your point is interesting but:
1) Imigration to the US from England and moreover from the rest of Europe was at such low level that it couldn't take off any notable weight from the Malthusian presure in the old continent. Bigger problem by the 16th-early 17th century, period of low migration, Britain was importing enormous quantities of food. By the lat 17th-18th century, period of migration's high tide, Britain was exporting large amonts of food. Your model is interresting but only works for the period post-1840.
2) If you look at who moved to the American colonies, you'd be surprised to realize that they are quite well off. They're not rich, but well off. You indeed needed a lot of money to cross the Atlantic, start a plantation and feed yourself for one year before your land can yield the fruit of your labour. Actually, even in the 19th century, only the lower middle class was moving to the US because it was expensive. Even nowadays, those migrating from South America to the US or from Africa or Asia to Europe are not the poorest among the poors. A "ticket" to be smuggled from Africa to Europe can cost up to $10,000, i.e. 10,000 working days pay for about 20% of mankind. Of course, it is not the whole story, some voyages are paid by future employers. But on average, when you poor, you die, migration is an investment.
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  Quote Mrhistoryguy23 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 12:51
Maharbbal you have a point... i like it.., very realistic...
 
But my question to you is:
 
You know how the english just used the natives and then when they didnt need them they killed them..., well, What would you say was the main reason for such drastic change... And do you think this interaction between the two of them formed the base of an american identity?
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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 13:49
I'm no specialist about the early modern America so my point are only personal opinions I couldn't back by any evidence. That being said, I doubt the very existence of an American identity and I am pretty convinced that if there was  any the India side contribution to it was close to zero.

As the case of the creoles (first and second generation of conquistadores) proves, being in the colonies tended to give the colons an identity of their own. But this is more due to the distance than to any interaction with other cultures. The issue is even more complex in New England as the colons migrated with their own very strong group culture (the quakers being the most famous exemple but there was plenty). More over, the colonies' territory was divided and more or less each colony had a different statut.

My view of an identity is anti-structural, i.e. even though identities can last millenia (the Jews in Europe for instance), they tend to appear and disappear suddenly. They tend to be centred around one interest common to all (fight against taxation for the case of the English colonies) or believed to be so (after all Manchester didn't have any representent in Parliament, they didn't ask for their independence).

So, in my opinion, colons saw themselves as differrent from the English from England, but I'm not sure they though of each other as Americans. It is not by chance that in the first version of the constitution each state was independent!

Concerning the natives' influence on the American identity (once more I'm guessing) I think it was pretty limited to a small part of the population mainly males who shared experiences with Indians (wars, traping, trade). For most of the settlers and the fist urbanites, natives were simply a nuisance and if there was any reference to them I'd guess it was merely rhetorical.

The whole native-friendly culture rised slowly from ca 1870 to 1970 before becoming prevalent nowadays and you have hardly a son of Irish immigrants in NYC who doesn't say: "yes I have some native blood somewhere".

One of the most important composent of identity is the language. If the indians had been instrumental in the creation of the identity (and not some ex-post reference) American English would be full of Indian words. Is it? The story is quite close to what happen to the Celts in England. English is 50% Germanic 50% Latin and has only three celt words in it. It pretty much support the view that the Celtic part of the English culture is a recreation, nothing else.

One of the most important reason for that is the character transitory of their culture, no massive stone buildings easily visible... Another reason is that there was hardly any unity in the native culture. The US and Canada (much more so than Mexico) is a European invention, colons didn't invade one country and made it their, they shaped the territory as if it was some raw material. Even the states have little or nothing to do with the tribes they took the name of.

Ultimately, a people cannot live in guilt. Well the German more or less can but they are the exception that confirms the rule. Americans discover the horror upon which their nation was based. As it was impossible to simply forget about it (as the Japanese did), to pretend you didn't know (as the European do for colonisation) or to simply pretend nothing happened (see the Turks and the Armenian genocide (it is just an example I don't wish to dwell about)), the American "decided" to swallow their victim and to integrate them into their identity.

When I'm saying decided I'm not refering to any consipiracy and I'm not saying that the average American woke up one morning saying: "gosh why don't I integrated the native into my identity?". I'm just saying it did happen because it was the less painful path for the American society to face its past. It is actually a very common feature of the national visions of history, it avoids nations to feel divided between the good ones and the bad ones.
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 13:52

I would say there is a big unknown in here. An upper case X

How many natives abandoned the tribal way of living an assimilated to the settlers? I believe they were quite a few.
 
I am not talking about mixed Natives that identify as Natives.
 
I am talking about Mixed European-Native people that identify as WHITE.
 
How many were there in colonial U.S.?
 
In the rest of the Americas they were many. In the U.S. myth says there were none.
 
If theirs numbers were important, they we can realize what happened to many native peoples: they were absorved into the mainstrem.
 
More data please
 
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  Quote Mrhistoryguy23 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 16:12
You got a nice point their penguin..., I think the White Amercians were just selfish at the time and wanted to take over period..., but i guess that was normal in that period of time...
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  Quote Decebal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 16:24

I think you have to look at the reasons and patterns of immigration from England as opposed to Spain, France and Portugal. The colonies of the latter had a relatively small immigration from the mother country, and usually males at that. The reason was that Spanish, Portuguese and French colonies were at first primarily oriented towards economic exploitation of raw resources (gold and silver for the Spanish, silver and sugar for the Portuguese, furs for the French). The type of lifestyle that awaited the colonists was difficult, while potentially very rewarding financially. Hence, the early colonies of these countries had a relatively low, predominantly male population, which had a need for native labor and of course native women. Thus, the countries which developed out of these colonies have a strong Amerindian component.

By contrast, the English' primary motivation for immigration was religious. Fundamentalist protestant groups would found colonies in the hope of creating new idealized religious communities far from the distraction of the "corrupt" society of England. Thus, the early American settlers tended to be rather exclusivist and did not mix  with the natives. True, natives could have been converted and assimilated, but as Maharbbal noticed, linugistic evidence points to the contrary.

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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 17:05

The idea that the immigration of Spaniards to the Americas was only of males is not quite true. It is true only for the 10 years period of the conquist. It is also true there was a sex imbalance for a long time. But European women always came as immigrants as well, in large numbers. Large masses of immigrants of both sexs came to Latin America both before and after independence, up to 1960. Afterwards immigration drop almost to zero.

The following statement is a well established myth in North American history:
 
"did not mix  with the natives"
 
But there are enough testimonies of the time that show that may not be the case. Otherwise, how do you explain, with the huge immigration of Europeans to the U.S. during 2 centuries, there is still a 6% of Native American genetics in the "White" population of the U.S.?
 
Admixture is there. What is needed are the historical details of how does it happened.
 
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Edited by pinguin - 07-Mar-2007 at 17:07
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  Quote Decebal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 17:19
what's the "white population", pinguin? Does it include the descendants of French (migrating from Quebec in the 19th century) and Spanish Americans (who don't include the recently-arrived and not yet assimilated "latino" population, but rather the descendants of Spanish colonists from Florida and Texas). Because those populations woould have had a significant native component. Let alone the large recently arrived "latino" population, who would bring an even larger native component.
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 20:06
I am talking of White people. Blond blue eyed Americans of "germanic" aspect that doesn't have any single Native American feature but that the genetic test show they have Native Ancestors. With modern genetics, it is becoming increasingly clear that that many people with Native ancestors simply forgot about them.

That's what I am talking about.

I am not talking about Hispanics, Brazilians and even Quebecois that admit openly they have Native Ancestry, but of the White Americans and theirs "Cherokee princess". Well, it is false Cherokees had royalty, but ancestry do exist.

More strange for you would be to know that many Latinos haven't a single drop of Native. Funny isn't?
 
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  Quote Maharbbal Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 21:56
pinguin I'm for sure not a specialist of the Americas as you are but, to me it appears clearly that the European migrant and the native did not mix... everywhere the same way. For instance, French colonies did not have enough settlers so they were using slaves to do what ever farm labour was needed. All these slaves (far from it) were not African, many of them were female and male POWs. Hence, logically when you have women around...

On the contrary, I have never heard of any plantation in Virginia or Carolinia or where ever in the southern English colonies using natives as workforce after the 1650s. And guess what? Those that had the most settlers won! So the most mixed populations and you can cultures were assimilated by the less mixed.

The figures you gave (where did you fished that BTW?) only support this point: important trace in the DNA but none in the culture... So there seem to have been a aculturation of the mix-blood. Although, once more the territories that would eventualy become the US of A were extremely diverse, it would be (I doubt it) interesting to seen if they are evenly spread over the country and possiblely to which tribes they are related.

I have a hypothesis: early settlers (Poncahontas style) are the most likely to have mixed with natives. I've been told that 13 millions Americans nowadays had genetical material dating back to the May Flower. Lets forget the exact figure which is of dubious origin to concentrate on the most important: early settlers had a lot of kids (they were very religious). Early mixing (before Independence) thus would have a much more important impact on the 2007 American gene pool than a late one.

Now remember that (1) the European population remained clustered on the East coast and mainly the northeastern colonies for almost 200 years (1580s-1770s), (2) the tribes there had real diplomatic and commercial relationships with the Europeans who to an extant respected these "nations" and (3) the eastern native were farmers and as such more numerous and closer to the European than say, the Sioux. So it would also explain why more mixing happened early.

Finally, the eastern native have been totally destroyed. To give you an idea there are 8,000 Hurons left for 750,000 Cherokee (wikipedia). One of the possibilities is that more eastern natives have been assimilated. Once the settlers reached the plain in the 1770-80s and specially in the 1820s-70s, the American identity was already strong.
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07-Mar-2007 at 22:26
Well, my sources are genetic studies, particularly one made by Shiver.
 
I agree with your analysis absolutely. I think the Natives were overcrowd by outsiders, and that's the main reason theirs numbers diminished. Besides, the assimilation machine worked hard. How do I know? Because I have seen that working in several places of Latin America, particularly in South America.
 
I also know of several "extinguished" tribes whose genes are in the mainstream today.
 
Most of the time, Native Americans migrated to the cities and lost theirs culture and immediately they were not considered "Indians" anymore. Perhaps lower class people, but not Indians.
 
Besides, it is well known in the U.S. that intermarriage between settlers and Natives although not totally blessed by society, it was not considered strange either. The fur trade is well know, but that's not the only case. And testimonies abound.
 
And you are right also with the point that mixing happened quite early. Afterwars the new european immigrants hardly married with pure Natives but with locals that already had admixture. Generation after generation of new arrivals diluted the admixture. Today the average is 1/16.
If the descendents of a Native marry during four generations with European you get the average admixture of the U.S. You will hardly notice in the phenotype, but sometimes you do.
 
Pinguin
 
 
 
 
 
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