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Saxon and Scythian

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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Saxon and Scythian
    Posted: 16-Jun-2010 at 17:50
Were any of you afraid I might mention Thrace?

If one looks at history without the prism of our currently accepted time-line, then the Ottomas were also from Thrace!

There capitol, before the conquest of Constantinople was in Adrian-ople! And, according to numerous maps, this entire area was once considered to be Thrace!

So, just where are we told the Sarmatians lived?

And, just how would the Sythians become involved within the same area?

Was it really by conquest? Or was it via "employment?"
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 02-Jun-2010 at 20:44
I just happend to notice that my last post was "ignored!"

If so, why? Perhaps it is because Franks and Saxons, are not now considered to be related?
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  Quote Shield-of-Dardania Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-May-2010 at 04:30
Originally posted by Vedam

I've also heard theories that the Scythians who were called in India the Sakas are the same as the tribe that Buddha belonded to the Sakyas. Even though Buddha was born on the India-nepal  boarder and the Scythians an Iranic group  did not enter India until 500 years later, and that was from the North-west.
Shaka and their kin tribe, the Kambhoja, were the Himalayan branches of Scythian and corresponding kin tribe Cymmerian.
 
Prince Siddharta Gautama (Buddha) lived in the 500s BC. Shaka and Kambhoja have been around in Pamir-Badakhshan region and nearby since, what, the Kurukshetra War mentioned in the Mahabhrata, which many guys guess occurred around the 1400s BC.
 
Shaka and Kambhoja, as well as Yavana (the Indian name for Greek, derived from Persian 'Yawna' for 'Ionian') and Tushara/Tukhara (Turk? or Thracian? or Tocharian?) were recorded in the Mahabhrata as among the foreign mercenary combatants in the Kurukshetra War.


Edited by Shield-of-Dardania - 24-May-2010 at 04:32
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 09-Feb-2010 at 19:45
Can the word "Frank" be considered to mean "free?", or "open?" Just take your pick! Could it be related to "Freisland?" Which might well mean "Land of the Free?"

Could the "Phranking / Franking privilege" be related?

Take your pick; http://www.google.com/search?sourceid=navclient&aq=1&oq=franking&ie=UTF-8&rlz=1T4ADBR_enUS315US315&q=franking+privilege+definition

Regards,

Edited by opuslola - 20-Feb-2010 at 18:17
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  Quote opuslola Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Oct-2009 at 20:31
Whilst I did not read all of the post above or below where I now move into, I would suggest that the following words have some good meaning'

"When Tacitus wrote his Germania, (c. AD 96), he did not know about any "Saxons". Instead he knew about a group of tribes where the Saxons eventually were known to have been located. When the geographer Ptolemy (c. AD 150) wrote about Germany, that group of tribes no longer existed, but instead, their names were replaced by the name "Saxons". The conjecture, is that sometime between the time of Tacitus and Ptolemy, those tribes mentioned by Tacitus formed a league, much like the later Franks and Alemanni, which was named the Saxons."

Hey guys and gals! Just how could two of the prime experts on the subject of "Ancient History", become suspended between the two views?"
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Feb-2009 at 17:40
Originally posted by Boyo

Didn’t Herodotus mention that Thracians worshiped Ares as one of their gods? Wouldn’t it make Samarians to be the same as Thracians who were well known by Herodotus? Thracians were a definite ethnicity. They left touchable traces behind, whereas Samarians are mentioned by scribes but left no place names no language behind and can not be assigned to a specific region with any certainly. It can be, the same people are talked about and all different names are attached to them. Having the same pantheon of gods doesn’t necessary tie them together? Greeks worshipped Ares too and were a separate nation. Besides, the same Herodotus wrote that Thracians are a populous people known by different names in different parts of the world.
 
Sarmatians did left place names behind. And even the modern variation of their language is believed to still exist right now since it is believed that Ossetians are the descendants of Sarmatians.
 
Finally, Herodotus himself clearly differeintiates between Sarmatians and Thracians and don't call them the same people.
 
Sarmatians of course left archeological evidence about themselves and we know where they lived.
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  Quote Boreasi Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06-Feb-2009 at 17:27
Originally posted by Boyo

Didn’t Herodotus mention that Thracians worshiped Ares as one of their gods? Wouldn’t it make Samarians to be the same as Thracians who were well known by Herodotus? Thracians were a definite ethnicity. They left touchable traces behind, whereas Samarians are mentioned by scribes but left no place names no language behind and can not be assigned to a specific region with any certainly. It can be, the same people are talked about and all different names are attached to them. Having the same pantheon of gods doesn’t necessary tie them together? Greeks worshipped Ares too and were a separate nation. Besides, the same Herodotus wrote that Thracians are a populous people known by different names in different parts of the world.


Interesting. But wasn't the Sarmatians the people who inhabitted Sarmatia, between the Black Sea and the Baltic inland...?!
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 30-Jan-2009 at 19:40
It is interesting that Jacob Grimm, in his Teutonic Mythology, suggested the name Mars may have come from the expression 'in dem Aresburg' (hope I spelt it right).
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 26-Jan-2009 at 17:01
Didn’t Herodotus mention that Thracians worshiped Ares as one of their gods? Wouldn’t it make Samarians to be the same as Thracians who were well known by Herodotus? Thracians were a definite ethnicity. They left touchable traces behind, whereas Samarians are mentioned by scribes but left no place names no language behind and can not be assigned to a specific region with any certainly. It can be, the same people are talked about and all different names are attached to them. Having the same pantheon of gods doesn’t necessary tie them together? Greeks worshipped Ares too and were a separate nation. Besides, the same Herodotus wrote that Thracians are a populous people known by different names in different parts of the world.

Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 26-Jan-2009 at 17:02
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 21-Jan-2009 at 22:24
Didn't have time to read the whole thread, so I apologize if someone said this already.
Originally posted by Brainstorm

The only connection i could find ,would be the existence of Sarmatian mercenaries in Britain,during late Roman times.
(its known that Sarmatians replaced Scythians in the same area)
Yes, as I was about to post:  Ironically, the Saxons may have fought Scythians, more or less, in that the probable prototype of the armored knight in the Arthurian age were the retired veterans, living at Bremetanacum (sp?) in Lancashire (to help defend it against Irish brigands), of the Sarmatian cataphracts stationed in Britain to back up the legion defending the Wall.  These were 'Scythians' of north Persian linguistic stock who wore plate armor and had armored skirts for their horses in the heaviest regiments.  As the only type of warrior capable of riding down the hardy but poorly armored Saxon foot, they would have made a natural mobile 'police force' in post-Roman Britain, moving quickly (under leadership of a high king?) to a threatened sector to combine with local militia in suppressing Saxon outbreaks.  (What eventually brought the Britons down was plague, seemingly, in the second half of the 6th century.) 
The most surprising similarities (or coincidence of course) ,are the use of dragon-similar in the artifacts of Saxons and the "flags" of Sarmatians,
and the myth of Exculiber. Scythians (and probably sarm) ,used to build tombs ,placing on top long swords,stucked on the ground or between rocks .
This is mentioned also by Herodotus,who calls them temples-tombs dedicated to Ares (god of War),as "he is the only God they worship).
Yes, the 'sword in the stone' has a decidedly Sarmatian flavor.  But I would guess the dragon standards would have to have been captured Sarmatian standards--characteristic dragon wind-sock useful to archery--or else similar ones adopted by their Keltic allies, with whom they no doubt became interbred.
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  Quote beorna Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 17-Jan-2009 at 00:31
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

Ok, thanks, but it doesn't change that historical fact.
I did not want to change the facts. I just wanted to show you the facts. You wanted to write for sure: "...but it doesn't change my unhistorical belief". Isn't it?
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Jan-2009 at 23:16
The word Saqsin has perfect Turkic etymlogical explanation meaning Saksin (lower i.e. lower Volga or Saqcin i.e. guardian). And it's not the name of the region, but just a name for a trade city at the lower Volga. Finally, there are no definite proofs that Sarai was located in the place of Saqsin, 
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Jan-2009 at 19:53
Ok, thanks, but it doesn't change that historical fact.
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  Quote beorna Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Jan-2009 at 12:13
So here two, yellow Alans, blue Vandals, red Suebians.
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  Quote Cyrus Shahmiri Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Jan-2009 at 08:46
Originally posted by beorna

It is especially interesting because Cyrus told us that the Saxon/Sakan invasion was a younger one, perhaps 4th century AD.
 
You asked "the Saxon name appears at least in the middle of the 4th century AC. Did they came later?" and I answered "Yes"
 
I have to to post it here too, you cerainly know Alans: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alans as you see there is a map which shows the migration of Alans in 4th century AD from the region which was certainly known as "Saksin" to the western Germany and other parts of Europe:

Saksin/Saqsin was changed to Sarai (capital city of the Golden Horde) in just 13th century:
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sarai_(city) : Mongol ruler Batu Khan is credited with building the city in the mid-1240s on the site of Saqsin
 
 
Would you please believe the historical facts?
 
If you are interested to know more about Saksins who were also known as Saxi, please read this book: "The Mongol Mission"
 
Of course I hope you also read the footnotes, when you read it!
 
"Now as the Friars traversed Comania they had on their right the land of the Saxi, whom we believe to be Goths and who are Christians: next the Alans who are Christians and then the Guzari [Khazars] who are likewise Christian. In their country is situated Ornas, 4 a rich city which the Tartars captured by flooding it with water. After, the Circassians, and they are Christians. And finally the Georgians, also Christians. "
 
1 According to Benedict the Pole (infra, p. 80), the Saxi were the Goths who still survived in the Crimea at this period, but the list of peoples given in The Secret History of the Mongols (section 262) suggests that they were the Chechen of the Caucasus (Sas or Sasoun).
 
Where was/is Sasoun?
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sasun Historically the area was known as Sasun, part of the historical Armenian highland.
 
The best land in Armenia, yes?
 
"The Sacae (Scythians) acquired possession of the best land in Armenia, which they left named after themselves, Sacasene;" (Strabo, Geography: 11.8.1: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?lookup=Strab.+11.8.4 )


Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 15-Jan-2009 at 08:57
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  Quote Some Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jan-2009 at 19:31
Originally posted by Slayertplsko

Originally posted by Some

Remember that nationally that exist back then and these people did not call themselves Germanic ,Germanic is just a linguistic term and late Proto-Germanic time is seen as the late Northern IE dialect of Europe or northern dialects in Scandinavia . that is what it is.. I have never said hat they where Germanic but they are ancestors linguistically to what we later call Proto-Germanic.


Good remark. Perhaps I could add a few things.

We don't know how they called themselves in early 1st millennium BC, we just know that Germanic speakers later called themselves thiudisk, perhaps earlier also sweboz. But there is no reason to conclude that with the Grimm's and Verner's law they 'suddenly' changed their endonym.

When High German evolved from Ingvaeonic, the people didn't change its endonym, it remained thiudisk (a few centuries later the form slightly changed to diutisc), and it's in fact the same to this day. When Slovak language emerged in the 10th century, the people didn't change its endonym - they still considered themselves Slavs and the endonym remained sloveni (Slovák is a later variant that finds its place in the name for a masculine member of Slovak nation only), which means Slavs.
 
True Smile
 
What I meant to tell Cyrus is that what we call Proto-Germanic or even Germanic is the   the late north IE langauge of northen Europe Grimms law and Verners law did not take a day.. so when they talk about the langauge where verners or grimms alw hade fully evolved they talk about Pre-Germanic or Early Germanic or even Germanic Parent langauge is something I have also heard of  that talks about the earlier stages of the langaugeWink  How ever the first IE speaking people in Scandinavia just spoke an IE dialect.
 
What Cyrus cannot or do not wish to understand is there a diffrent from being anchestors to Germanic than being Germanic.
 
Cause consonants shifts,Accent shift,Vowel shifts,some inflection reduction verbal system alteration etc and so must take generations..
 
All love Smile
 
 
 


Edited by Some - 14-Jan-2009 at 19:34
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jan-2009 at 17:35
Originally posted by Some

Remember that nationally that exist back then and these people did not call themselves Germanic ,Germanic is just a linguistic term and late Proto-Germanic time is seen as the late Northern IE dialect of Europe or northern dialects in Scandinavia . that is what it is.. I have never said hat they where Germanic but they are ancestors linguistically to what we later call Proto-Germanic.


Good remark. Perhaps I could add a few things.

We don't know how they called themselves in early 1st millennium BC, we just know that Germanic speakers later called themselves thiudisk, perhaps earlier also sweboz. But there is no reason to conclude that with the Grimm's and Verner's law they 'suddenly' changed their endonym.

When High German evolved from Ingvaeonic, the people didn't change its endonym, it remained thiudisk (a few centuries later the form slightly changed to diutisc), and it's in fact the same to this day. When Slovak language emerged in the 10th century, the people didn't change its endonym - they still considered themselves Slavs and the endonym remained sloveni (Slovák is a later variant that finds its place in the name for a masculine member of Slovak nation only), which means Slavs.
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jan-2009 at 17:21
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

beorna said 600 BC which means early 6th century BC and I said "about the 6th century BC", is this a very big lie?!! or do you want also deny the existence of the Persian empire in this century?


Yes, 600BC is 6th century BC, but one should be careful with linking 'around 600BC' to '6th century BC' - this can lead to misunderstandings, just like the one you caused. There, of course, was Persian empire in the 6th century, but not around 600BC. You simply weren't precise enough.

Moreover, Persians never controlled any land near Jutland - the nearest they got was present-day Ukraine.

I don't know what to think...
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  Quote Slayertplsko Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jan-2009 at 17:09
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

Slayertplsko, what can you do except to deny? I think someday you will deny even my own existence! Didn't Some say Germanic peoples came to scandinavia 4500 years ago? here


No, she didn't. Learn to read properly, this is ridiculous.
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  Quote beorna Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Jan-2009 at 16:55
Originally posted by Cyrus Shahmiri

Slayertplsko, what can you do except to deny? I think someday you will deny even my own existence! Didn't Some say Germanic peoples came to scandinavia 4500 years ago? here
 
beorna said 600 BC which means early 6th century BC and I said "about the 6th century BC", is this a very big lie?!! or do you want also deny the existence of the Persian empire in this century?
But I didn't say they migrated to Germania, they evolved within older groups and cultures. But there is no Scythian input in these regions.
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