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The British in India

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: History of the South Asian subcontinent
Forum Discription: The Indian sub-continent and South Central Asia
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=23404
Printed Date: 27-Apr-2024 at 16:45
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Topic: The British in India
Posted By: Scaevola
Subject: The British in India
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 11:15
It seems to me that although many decry the British rule of India as oppressive and exploitative, there would be no India at all if Britain hadn't conquered it. Wasn't it the case that the Indian subcontinent was nothing more than a plurality of warring principalities before Britain conquered (and unified) it? I know for a fact that English is the single consistently spoken language and throughout the subcontinent (probably a good thing for India and Pakistan on the world stage) and that the second most prominently spoken is Hindi, which is not nearly as prevalent. India, it seems to me, would still be a highly balkanized and unimportant region of the world (if infact it could have retained its sovereignty in a disunited state for so long) if it weren't for the British occupation and unification of the country.

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SPQR| Alea Iacta Est



Replies:
Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 12:01
The British were not the first ones to unite S Asia. The Mauryans, the Khiljis, the Mughals etc. ANd BTW there is still no India, it has what 17 insurgencies going on right now. The only thing new S Asia got out of British rule were railroads and syphallis. And I suspect it would have gotten both anyhow.

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Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 12:12
Plus when it started a good efficient and incorrptible civil service and a founding in democracy


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 13:13

Efficient? Incorruptible? The civil service? And democracy? Ah yes, British India was never democratic.



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Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 14:25
How is it that India is knows as one of the biggest democracies around ?


Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 15:12
A nice train set to play with, some tea to export and a two hundred year gap in history where none of the divisions that cripple India today were addressed.


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Light blue touch paper and stand well back

http://www.maquahuitl.co.uk - http://www.maquahuitl.co.uk

http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk - http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk


Posted By: Peteratwar
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 15:24
What were these divisions and how should they have been addressed ?


Posted By: Temujin
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 18:42
Originally posted by Paul

A nice train set to play with, some tea to export and a two hundred year gap in history where none of the divisions that cripple India today were addressed.


in what way is division crippeling? it obviously didn't crippled europe...


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 18:48
Originally posted by Peteratwar

How is it that India is knows as one of the biggest democracies around ?
Debatable whether they are a democracy, and even if they are; that was not one of England/Great Britain/United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland/ United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland\s contributions. India was ruled by a Govonor General/ Viceroy answerable to London.


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Posted By: Paul
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 19:32
Originally posted by Temujin

Originally posted by Paul

A nice train set to play with, some tea to export and a two hundred year gap in history where none of the divisions that cripple India today were addressed.


in what way is division crippeling? it obviously didn't crippled europe...
 
Europe doesn't quite have a caste system. Poverty on the level of Calcutta. Extreme religious divides.


-------------
Light blue touch paper and stand well back

http://www.maquahuitl.co.uk - http://www.maquahuitl.co.uk

http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk - http://www.toltecitztli.co.uk


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 31-Jan-2008 at 23:50
India, it seems to me, would still be a highly balkanized and unimportant region of the world (if infact it could have retained its sovereignty in a disunited state for so long) if it weren't for the British occupation and unification of the country.

I think that's the wrong way around. If Britian hadn't conqured india, britian would have remained an unimportant region of the world.

Every empire in history that can control a reasonable portion of the subcontinent becomes rich and powerful. Those that can control all of it become unequalled in their age. Its not for nothing that the word Mogul means a rich and powerful person.


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Posted By: Scaevola
Date Posted: 01-Feb-2008 at 00:30
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

India, it seems to me, would still be a highly balkanized and unimportant region of the world (if infact it could have retained its sovereignty in a disunited state for so long) if it weren't for the British occupation and unification of the country.

I think that's the wrong way around. If Britian hadn't conqured india, britian would have remained an unimportant region of the world.

Every empire in history that can control a reasonable portion of the subcontinent becomes rich and powerful. Those that can control all of it become unequalled in their age. Its not for nothing that the word Mogul means a rich and powerful person.
 
I think that is entirely wrong. While India was certainly an important an influential colony, one can not say that Britain would have been unimportant without having conquered it. British influence in world affairs, regardless of their colonial activities, was very very real and substantial. Also keep in mind that India was only one of Britain's colonies; in her prime, the British Empire controlled one-fourth of the world's total land mass, and India was only a portion of that.


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SPQR| Alea Iacta Est


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 01-Feb-2008 at 03:32

Most of Britains revenue was linked to India, and more than half her colonies, like Egypt, Aden, Singapore, and later Iraq were made to secure India.



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Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 01-Feb-2008 at 05:38
And most of the troops who captured those territories for England were Indian. How do you think Britian had such a small army, and yet captured so much territory? Because the boots on the ground were sepoys.

British colonialism largely revolved around keeping India, and the routes from England to India, safe. During the latter stages of the Great Game, Russia considered that India was Britians "achilles heel" and positioned an army just north of Afghanistan to invade India if war ever broke out between Russia & Britian.


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Posted By: creek
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2008 at 01:04

India had lots of labor power for the British. also it wwas rich in natural resources



Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2008 at 11:39
 
Originally posted by Sparten

Efficient? Incorruptible? The civil service? And democracy? Ah yes, British India was never democratic.

British India was never democratic because India wasn't democratic before the British came. As was usual for them, the British inserted themselves into the existing local power structures and continued to maintain them.
 
So India remained an aristocratic, autocratic empire just with (in the beginning) British tax collectors and (in the end) a British Emperor.
 
But the last George for instance was no less democratic than, say, Shah Jehan. Certainly though under his reign as Emperor there was growing political freedom among the Indian educated middle classes at least.


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2008 at 12:02
Actually, GLCE2003, British rule in India can be divided into three statges, i) company raj, which was brutal, extermely brutal even by the standards of the age as attested by contemporys, ii) crown rule from circa 1860-1914, which was chracterised by a "pretend we are not here"approach, the British let the locals do whatever, if they got too big for their boots lauch a punative expedition/measures depending on area, iii) 1914 to 1947, characterised by repression like the Defense of India Act and the Rowlett Act, though incidentally it was only here that the Brits wanted India to take a role of its own, as evidenced by the creation of a national flag, and Indian embassys/ missions in most countrys. So ironically, the time when Britain wanted India more independant was when the rule was even more repressive.

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Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 03-Feb-2008 at 17:44
What the British Empire did for India:
 
1. British/European Technology - Railroads, telegraphs, telephones, automobiles, etc
2. English Language, coincidentally only vital because America, Canada, Australia speak English; access to trade. Also keeps them united.
3. Unite Principalities and Kingdoms inadvertently by giving them belief in common cause. For example, the word "Hindu" or "Hinduism" is a British invention; designed to make it easier to talk about the various philosophies and sects and schools of thought within Hinduism as just one entity. Meaning the Pre-British Indians did not consider themselves as Hindus rather one group would call themselves "Shiva worshipper" and look down on another group who would fashion themselves "Hanuman Devotees", etc.
Originially Indians called their religion "Dharma Shastra" or "Philosophies". Indians have been a spiritual people for a long time, and their religion for all practicable persuasions can be considered what the Abrahamic Axis considers Paganism or Ancestor Worship (making rulers, princes, and kings objects of worship).
4. European Knowledge - knowledge of the Europeans; technical know how, etc.
 
What the British did wrong with the Indians:
1. Carelessness towards their beliefs: caused the Siphai Mutiny of 1857
2. Oppression: towards the beginning they were physically brutal no less than native or Tukic Empires
3. Lack of forecasting growth: Meaning the British treated India as a personal breadbasket and kept Industrialization from coming to them. Whether intentionally or unintentionally, when India gained Independence in 1947 it was only 2% of the world economy; whereas under the Mughal Empire in 1700 it was roughly 27%. Research in Software and other CSE departments in the 1980s was because of the ingenuity of the Indian to realize the future was in computers.
4. Wealth went to foreign lands: The British bred manufatured or grew their supplies in India, but sent the wealth made from business to London. Whereas other invaders would distribute the wealth in the native lands, the Indians were doing work to improve an Island nation most of them have never seen before.
 
People like to criticize China and India for its dirt and rust, but they forget that even Britain in 1880s was cloaked with hazy clouds of pollution. London of the late 1880s did not look like the London of the 1980s. And various British authors write about it, one comes to mind: Scrooge and the Three Ghosts.
 
Lastly, the British were made because of the Indians, not the other way around. China, Thailand, Tukey, Iran have shown that you dont need to be under a foreign conqueror to be culturally transfuse technology and science from them. In essence, the Indians would have gotten such technology anyways. It certainly did not help them to work for peanuts as all wealth was transported to the Kingdom.
 
Also, yes, the Indians are today because the British united them. However i dont believe they will stay that way. Looking at the habits of the South Asians, they have the highest or most extreme and prevalent forms of social stratification in the world. They also operate in bridaries or clans/guilds/groups/tribes. They are known to war with each other than act united.
 
Mostly because India has 25 major ethnicities and 18 major languages, hard to be united. English serves as a uniting force of communication.


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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 01:35
  Mughal just looking at your base text "ALL YOUR BASE ARE BELONG TO US ", am i mistaken if i think that it is taken from that Gensis shooter game which was famous for murdering the English language.


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 01:37
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

And most of the troops who captured those territories for England were Indian. How do you think Britian had such a small army, and yet captured so much territory? Because the boots on the ground were sepoys.

 
               In world war I and II Indian soliders amassed the highest number of military honours for foreign troops.


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 05:34
Not surprising considering they were the majority of foreign troops.

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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 13:04
 
Originally posted by Sparten

Actually, GLCE2003, British rule in India can be divided into three statges, i) company raj, which was brutal, extermely brutal even by the standards of the age as attested by contemporys, ii) crown rule from circa 1860-1914, which was chracterised by a "pretend we are not here"approach, the British let the locals do whatever, if they got too big for their boots lauch a punative expedition/measures depending on area, iii) 1914 to 1947, characterised by repression like the Defense of India Act and the Rowlett Act, though incidentally it was only here that the Brits wanted India to take a role of its own, as evidenced by the creation of a national flag, and Indian embassys/ missions in most countrys. So ironically, the time when Britain wanted India more independant was when the rule was even more repressive.
 
Apart from the emotive words like extremely brutal I can agree with most of that and it's doesn't affect my point.
 
India was undemocratic under the British because it was undemocratic in the first place, and the British just took over / inserted themselves in the existing system, which was also marked for its brutality.


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Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 17:22
Originally posted by gcle2003

 
Originally posted by Sparten

Actually, GLCE2003, British rule in India can be divided into three statges, i) company raj, which was brutal, extermely brutal even by the standards of the age as attested by contemporys, ii) crown rule from circa 1860-1914, which was chracterised by a "pretend we are not here"approach, the British let the locals do whatever, if they got too big for their boots lauch a punative expedition/measures depending on area, iii) 1914 to 1947, characterised by repression like the Defense of India Act and the Rowlett Act, though incidentally it was only here that the Brits wanted India to take a role of its own, as evidenced by the creation of a national flag, and Indian embassys/ missions in most countrys. So ironically, the time when Britain wanted India more independant was when the rule was even more repressive.
 
Apart from the emotive words like extremely brutal I can agree with most of that and it's doesn't affect my point.
 
India was undemocratic under the British because it was undemocratic in the first place, and the British just took over / inserted themselves in the existing system, which was also marked for its brutality.
 
    Well the culture of the sub-continent was certainly far less cruel than the other cultures in the world. In ancient times when human sacrifice was common among all people be it the Egyptians or Sumerians or native Americans only animal sacrifice was practiced in this region and even that didn't set very well with some people and there were a lot of reformers which tried to stop the practice.
 
     The only native excercise in Empire making of the subcontinent the Gupta empire resulted in Ashoka who disgusted by the human life cost of his empire making became a passivist.
 
      The institution of slavery never existed in the subcontinent. Some may say that the caste system is a form of that but it really was a laetr development as can be gaged by the fact that Megasethes reported no class of people which we can relate to modern dalits.
 
        Bhuddsim one of the most humane religion was a product of this culture.
 
          I am curious that which part of the culture of this region do you consider as or more barbaric than other cultures. 
 
 
      And i agree with Sparten, the British rule of the subcontinent was "extremely brutal", pretty muc like it was everywhere like in the Americas.


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 17:23
Originally posted by Omar al Hashim

Not surprising considering they were the majority of foreign troops.
 
 Their share of honours per capita was also one of the highest, either native or foreign.  


Posted By: HaloChanter
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 19:11
Argh, I hate the Good v Evil British India debate.
 
So pointless.


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Kind regards,

HaloChanter


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 20:43
Originally posted by bilal_ali_2000

[
    Well the culture of the sub-continent was certainly far less cruel than the other cultures in the world. In ancient times when human sacrifice was common among all people be it the Egyptians or Sumerians or native Americans only animal sacrifice was practiced in this region and even that didn't set very well with some people and there were a lot of reformers which tried to stop the practice.
 
     The only native excercise in Empire making of the subcontinent the Gupta empire resulted in Ashoka who disgusted by the human life cost of his empire making became a passivist.
 
      The institution of slavery never existed in the subcontinent. Some may say that the caste system is a form of that but it really was a laetr development as can be gaged by the fact that Megasethes reported no class of people which we can relate to modern dalits.
 
        Bhuddsim one of the most humane religion was a product of this culture.
Agreed. But as a matter of fact it faded out in India itself.
 
          I am curious that which part of the culture of this region do you consider as or more barbaric than other cultures. 
I didn't actually say it was more barbaric than other cultures, simply that it was brutal. For a single, quick example though, take suttee/sati or however you want to spell it.
 
 
      And i agree with Sparten, the British rule of the subcontinent was "extremely brutal", pretty muc like it was everywhere like in the Americas.
The only parts of America ruled by the British were Canada, parts of the West Indies, and the eastern part of the present USA up to 1783. I don't think any of that was particularly marked by brutality, compared to what went on in the rest of the continent and the USA post-1783. I'll grant of course slavery, but it was abolished earlier in the British colonies than elsewhere.


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Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 22:02
Originally posted by gcle2003

Originally posted by bilal_ali_2000

[
    Well the culture of the sub-continent was certainly far less cruel than the other cultures in the world. In ancient times when human sacrifice was common among all people be it the Egyptians or Sumerians or native Americans only animal sacrifice was practiced in this region and even that didn't set very well with some people and there were a lot of reformers which tried to stop the practice.
 
     The only native excercise in Empire making of the subcontinent the Gupta empire resulted in Ashoka who disgusted by the human life cost of his empire making became a passivist.
 
      The institution of slavery never existed in the subcontinent. Some may say that the caste system is a form of that but it really was a laetr development as can be gaged by the fact that Megasethes reported no class of people which we can relate to modern dalits.
 
        Bhuddsim one of the most humane religion was a product of this culture.
Agreed. But as a matter of fact it faded out in India itself.
 
          I am curious that which part of the culture of this region do you consider as or more barbaric than other cultures. 
I didn't actually say it was more barbaric than other cultures, simply that it was brutal. For a single, quick example though, take suttee/sati or however you want to spell it.
 
 
      And i agree with Sparten, the British rule of the subcontinent was "extremely brutal", pretty muc like it was everywhere like in the Americas.
The only parts of America ruled by the British were Canada, parts of the West Indies, and the eastern part of the present USA up to 1783. I don't think any of that was particularly marked by brutality, compared to what went on in the rest of the continent and the USA post-1783. I'll grant of course slavery, but it was abolished earlier in the British colonies than elsewhere.
         Well the fact that only 1% of the population of USA is  of native extract proves my point. Compare that with the other American countries ruled by Spanish or Portugal which are largely full or partly native American.       
 
 
 


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 22:07
Originally posted by gcle2003

[QUOTE=bilal_ali_2000][
    Well the culture of the sub-continent was certainly far less cruel than the other cultures in the world. In ancient times when human sacrifice was common among all people be it the Egyptians or Sumerians or native Americans only animal sacrifice was practiced in this region and even that didn't set very well with some people and there were a lot of reformers which tried to stop the practice.
 
     The only native excercise in Empire making of the subcontinent the Gupta empire resulted in Ashoka who disgusted by the human life cost of his empire making became a passivist.
 
      The institution of slavery never existed in the subcontinent. Some may say that the caste system is a form of that but it really was a laetr development as can be gaged by the fact that Megasethes reported no class of people which we can relate to modern dalits.
 
        Bhuddsim one of the most humane religion was a product of this culture.
Agreed. But as a matter of fact it faded out in India itself.
[QUOTE]
 
       It faded out because Hinduism adpoted its humane nature, so there was no reason for the common man to prefer Bhuddism over Hinduism. For example Bhuddism never outlawed meat completely. Bhudda 's last meal was of Pork. Ashoka in his pillars says that animals should not be killed for trivial purpsoes like for their skin or for hunting but killing them for their meat because of neccesity was allowed. Hinduism however in its adaptation to Bhuddism banned the eating of meat.  
 


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 22:19
Originally posted by gcle2003

I didn't actually say it was more barbaric than other cultures, simply that it was brutal. For a single, quick example though, take suttee/sati or however you want to spell it.
 
 
 Yes there is no excuse for Satti. However looking at the history of the practice you will understnad its genesis. In the subcontinent the wives of the warrior classes used to commit suicide because then they would become concubines of the victor king. However later it became a compulsion and not jst for the warrior classes but for all classes. In the ceremony of Satti a woman would walk to the altar and all the other people around them would be shouting "Satti mata ki jai, Satti mata ki jai" (hail to the great Satti Mother) giving the impression that as if the woman who was being burned was doing it out of her own free will.  


Posted By: MarcoPolo
Date Posted: 04-Feb-2008 at 23:03
Originally posted by Scaevola

It seems to me that although many decry the British rule of India as oppressive and exploitative, there would be no India at all if Britain hadn't conquered it. Wasn't it the case that the Indian subcontinent was nothing more than a plurality of warring principalities before Britain conquered (and unified) it? I know for a fact that English is the single consistently spoken language and throughout the subcontinent (probably a good thing for India and Pakistan on the world stage) and that the second most prominently spoken is Hindi, which is not nearly as prevalent. India, it seems to me, would still be a highly balkanized and unimportant region of the world (if infact it could have retained its sovereignty in a disunited state for so long) if it weren't for the British occupation and unification of the country.
 
I agree, I think the modern country called ''india'' today should be very thankful to the British for creating the country that they have right now for them..
 
Sure, various foreign rulers did form empires similar in geography as to what we see today, they were very much ''Empires'' ruled and run by non-indians. 
 
british infrastructure, government/civic developments and the culture/identity fournished by british colonial rule and then handed to the natives are often overlooked and have not been given due attention by most scholars particularly by the native inhabitants of the country itself.


Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2008 at 00:37
To tell you the truth, MarcoPolo, these developments would have occured over time anyways anyhow.
 
Refer to my post about the Few nations that escaped European Expansion: China, Japan, Thailand, Iran, Turkey, Ethiopia, Saudi Arabia, and Afghanistan. Besides Afghanistan, the others were successfully able to replicate and improve on foreign technology. They run their own show without foreign Imperialism.
 
Some Indian Empires are thus:
Maghadan Empire
Gupta Empire : India's Golden Age
Rashtrakutha Empire
Pallava Empire
Hoysala Empire
Vijayanagra Empire
Chola Empire
Satavahana Empire
Pandyan Empire
 
Lastly, I have already listed the benefits of the British Empire:
1. Common Cause against British - helped different people of different ethnicities unite
2. British Technology - railroad, telegraph
3. English language - helped them communicate amongst one another, helped them in international business with Canada, UK, USA, Australia.
 
But the bad effects:
1. British disregard for Indians' self interest/religion/culture
2. British Brutality
3. British took Indian wealth and transported it into Britain; not using the wealth to make India better. As a result, India started 1947 handicapped. Whereas India was 24% of world economy (estimated) in 1700 and 16% in 1800s; in 1950 it was less than 3%.
 
I dont know what the scholars of modern day India think today; what I do know is what I listed. If they grieve British Rule (after all tehey fought against British, must mean they didnt want them there) they have multiple sources to greive from.


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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2008 at 00:44
Originally posted by bilal ali

Well the fact that only 1% of the population of USA is  of native extract proves my point. Compare that with the other American countries ruled by Spanish or Portugal which are largely full or partly native American.      

No it doesn't. Britian is not responsible for US crimes. And regardless, you can't compare different colonies, because the administrations of different colonies had hugely different goals, abilities, and human rights records.
[Buddhism] faded out because Hinduism adpoted its humane nature, so there was no reason for the common man to prefer Bhuddism over Hinduism. For example Bhuddism never outlawed meat completely. Bhudda 's last meal was of Pork. Ashoka in his pillars says that animals should not be killed for trivial purpsoes like for their skin or for hunting but killing them for their meat because of neccesity was allowed. Hinduism however in its adaptation to Bhuddism banned the eating of meat. 

That's just wrong basically. The buddhist population converted to islam. Haven't you noticed that the areas with large buddhist populations now have large muslim ones?

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Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2008 at 03:48
Hes right; all Pakistanis and Afghanis were Buddhs once.

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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2008 at 10:00
Originally posted by bilal_ali_2000

Originally posted by gcle2003

The only parts of America ruled by the British were Canada, parts of the West Indies, and the eastern part of the present USA up to 1783. I don't think any of that was particularly marked by brutality, compared to what went on in the rest of the continent and the USA post-1783. I'll grant of course slavery, but it was abolished earlier in the British colonies than elsewhere.
         Well the fact that only 1% of the population of USA is  of native extract proves my point. Compare that with the other American countries ruled by Spanish or Portugal which are largely full or partly native American.       
 
 
The USA is not British.


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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2008 at 10:04
Originally posted by bilal_ali_2000

Originally posted by gcle2003

[QUOTE=bilal_ali_2000]
        Bhuddsim one of the most humane religion was a product of this culture.
Agreed. But as a matter of fact it faded out in India itself.
[QUOTE] 
       It faded out because Hinduism adpoted its humane nature, so there was no reason for the common man to prefer Bhuddism over Hinduism. For example Bhuddism never outlawed meat completely. Bhudda 's last meal was of Pork. Ashoka in his pillars says that animals should not be killed for trivial purpsoes like for their skin or for hunting but killing them for their meat because of neccesity was allowed. Hinduism however in its adaptation to Bhuddism banned the eating of meat.  
Are you really claiming that the prohibition against eating meat in Hinduism postdates Gautama? I thought the whole point of the Buddhist position on eating meat was that it denied the then existing Hindu tradition (at least for Brahmins).


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Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2008 at 12:14
I think what hes saying is that Hindic Philosophy adopted Buddhist principles into its system.

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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 05-Feb-2008 at 14:00
 
Originally posted by Mughaal

I think what hes saying is that Hindic Philosophy adopted Buddhist principles into its system.
 
That might be true to some degree. However what he said was
Hinduism however in its adaptation to Bhuddism banned the eating of meat.  
 
That's what I was challenging. Banning eating meat couldn't have been an adaptation to Buddhism, since Buddhism doesn't ban eating meat (though 'for the purpose of training' it exhorts not to kill līving creatures).
 
And I'm pretty sure the Hindu attitude to it predates Buddhism, as does Jainism.
 
 


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Posted By: maqsad
Date Posted: 09-Feb-2008 at 10:31
Originally posted by bilal_ali_2000

         Well the fact that only 1% of the population of USA is  of native extract proves my point. Compare that with the other American countries ruled by Spanish or Portugal which are largely full or partly native American.   


Can I compare it to the first American country ruled by the Spanish, Mexico? The spanish first of all practically wiped out the capital city of the Incas and then proceeded to burn the crops of the native rural population to wipe out 90% of them.


Posted By: Scaevola
Date Posted: 13-Feb-2008 at 15:46
Originally posted by Mughaal

What the British Empire did for India:
 
1. British/European Technology - Railroads, telegraphs, telephones, automobiles, etc
2. English Language, coincidentally only vital because America, Canada, Australia speak English; access to trade. Also keeps them united.
3. Unite Principalities and Kingdoms inadvertently by giving them belief in common cause. For example, the word "Hindu" or "Hinduism" is a British invention; designed to make it easier to talk about the various philosophies and sects and schools of thought within Hinduism as just one entity. Meaning the Pre-British Indians did not consider themselves as Hindus rather one group would call themselves "Shiva worshipper" and look down on another group who would fashion themselves "Hanuman Devotees", etc.
Originially Indians called their religion "Dharma Shastra" or "Philosophies". Indians have been a spiritual people for a long time, and their religion for all practicable persuasions can be considered what the Abrahamic Axis considers Paganism or Ancestor Worship (making rulers, princes, and kings objects of worship).
4. European Knowledge - knowledge of the Europeans; technical know how, etc.
 
What the British did wrong with the Indians:
1. Carelessness towards their beliefs: caused the Siphai Mutiny of 1857
2. Oppression: towards the beginning they were physically brutal no less than native or Tukic Empires
3. Lack of forecasting growth: Meaning the British treated India as a personal breadbasket and kept Industrialization from coming to them. Whether intentionally or unintentionally, when India gained Independence in 1947 it was only 2% of the world economy; whereas under the Mughal Empire in 1700 it was roughly 27%. Research in Software and other CSE departments in the 1980s was because of the ingenuity of the Indian to realize the future was in computers.
4. Wealth went to foreign lands: The British bred manufatured or grew their supplies in India, but sent the wealth made from business to London. Whereas other invaders would distribute the wealth in the native lands, the Indians were doing work to improve an Island nation most of them have never seen before.
 
People like to criticize China and India for its dirt and rust, but they forget that even Britain in 1880s was cloaked with hazy clouds of pollution. London of the late 1880s did not look like the London of the 1980s. And various British authors write about it, one comes to mind: Scrooge and the Three Ghosts.
 
Lastly, the British were made because of the Indians, not the other way around. China, Thailand, Tukey, Iran have shown that you dont need to be under a foreign conqueror to be culturally transfuse technology and science from them. In essence, the Indians would have gotten such technology anyways. It certainly did not help them to work for peanuts as all wealth was transported to the Kingdom.
 
Also, yes, the Indians are today because the British united them. However i dont believe they will stay that way. Looking at the habits of the South Asians, they have the highest or most extreme and prevalent forms of social stratification in the world. They also operate in bridaries or clans/guilds/groups/tribes. They are known to war with each other than act united.
 
Mostly because India has 25 major ethnicities and 18 major languages, hard to be united. English serves as a uniting force of communication.
 
Excellent post, but just from the information you've provided here it seems to me the Britain quite literally did make India. I always knew that India as a State was unified under the British, I had no idea that the Hindu religion itself underwent unification under the rule of Britain. Now, clearly Britain benefited from the resources it extracted from the Indian subcontinent but that does not mean that it would not have been a formidable power with or without India. It's also important to note that Britain actually did capture India- so what does that say about India? Clearly, if the British hadn't taken it some other colonial power may well have (such as the French) and statistically commonwealth countries have done a lot better after receiving independence.
 
What bothers me most though, is the Indian perception that the British should be hated or that the British are the cause of all India's troubles. Clearly, there have been many benefits to British rule, and I don't see why it matters to the Indian people so much that they were being exploited by a foreign autocracy rather than more petty autocratic home-rule. I feel that the Indian people owe it to the British at least to maintain a decent attitude towards them given all the benefits derived from colonial rule.
 
As to the allegation that India will soon Balkanize, I really don't think so. My family is Indian, I've been there many times and I know a lot of Indians - there's definate trans-race and language sense of nationalism for the most part. I seriously doubt that, especially with the new economic boom, India will be breaking up anytime soon.


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SPQR| Alea Iacta Est


Posted By: HaloChanter
Date Posted: 27-Feb-2008 at 18:55
The thing that bugs me most about this thread, is the use of "Indian".
 
You may refer to this from the Congressional movements of the 1880's onwards, but to unify the sub-continent under the British, particularly the Company, as 'India' or 'Indians' is far too simplistic to make any kind of moral judgements (if you really have to, I personally think its a waste of time).
 
British rule was so successful in the sub-continent as it was so ethnically, culturally and religiously divided. After the break-down of Mogul authority India was far too factional to resemble a unified entity. Under the British it was kept predominantly that way. Indeed, as John Malcolm pointed out, Company policy was to retain Princely states as a tool for authority and continuity. There could be no 'India' while it remained a fractured and seperated entity.
 
So to say "Britain was mean to Indians because so and so, and Britain did this to India so its bad, etc etc" is really far too general and discriminative.
 
British policy in the Indian states, for example, was far from 'careless about Indian beliefs'.  Ritual, display and ceremony were upheld and respected in the majority of cases. Residency kitchens, for example, were kept stiffly along religious and cultural caste lines. As were military cantonments and regimental camps in the field. As well as messes in British Presidencies.
 
The causes of the Indian Mutiny of 1857 were not directly the result of disrespect for Indian religions or customs, but more the perceived threat to those factors. There was never a strong Christian missionary force at work, there was no great plan to introduce forced use of pig or cow fat in the cartridges of guns, and the enforcement of certain anti-religious or caste regulations in the military were quickly repealed.
 
Furthermore, the accusation that Britons were brutal is so general and unsupportable as to be laughable. Remember, at any one point in the British Raj there were very few Britons at all. In a population of some hundred millions, there were only ever about 150,000-200,000 British souls in the sub-continent, half of those soldiers. If you mean brutality in war, the British were benign in comparison to the Marathas, the Pathans, the Moguls, or Mysore. Outrages committed by the military of a power is a universal phenomenon, and you must remember in the case of Britisih power in India, it was predominantly composed of Indians.
 
In the cases of industrialisation or general economic trends, indeed during the late eighteenth century and early nineteenth century there was a trend to enrich Britain over India. Indeed that is the pattern of every earthly empire in history. The reason it flowed out of India, however, is because the central authority of the British empire did not reside in India, but in Britain. However, from the mid-nineteenth century onward a vast amount of investment, unknown before in the history of the subcontinent, poured in through the medium of canals, irrigation, roads, bridges, telegraphs, tanks, schools, civic institutions, medicine and communication. Before British rule the Punjab was an under-cultivated, dry land. After its annexation it became the granary of the empire.
 
Anyway, I promised myself I would not get dragged in to this kind of argument. But to assume one action offended all Indians under British rule is to assume a uniform, common Indian society. What the banning of Sutti meant in Awadh is not the same as it meant in Nagpur. What the Mutiny of 1857 meant in the Delhi territories is not the same as what it meant in the Punjab.


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Kind regards,

HaloChanter


Posted By: pikeshot1600
Date Posted: 27-Feb-2008 at 23:17
The anti-British sentiments here border on pathology.  Some people in India condemning Britain for things that have contributed to their success, and blaming the British for much of what has made that success possible.
 
I am impressed with HaloChanter's last post.
 
 


Posted By: ruffian
Date Posted: 28-Feb-2008 at 05:34
Originally posted by HaloChanter

The thing that bugs me most about this thread, is the use of "Indian".
 
You may refer to this from the Congressional movements of the 1880's onwards, but to unify the sub-continent under the British, particularly the Company, as 'India' or 'Indians' is far too simplistic to make any kind of moral judgements (if you really have to, I personally think its a waste of time).
 
British rule was so successful in the sub-continent as it was so ethnically, culturally and religiously divided. After the break-down of Mogul authority India was far too factional to resemble a unified entity. Under the British it was kept predominantly that way. Indeed, as John Malcolm pointed out, Company policy was to retain Princely states as a tool for authority and continuity. There could be no 'India' while it remained a fractured and seperated entity.

Not quite. This "fractured" notion is a creation of british. India was one entity with a common culture, religion and political ethos from kashmir to kanykumari and  afghanistan to  bangladesh. If british had not come, mughals were already puppets in the hands of marathas and princely states of rajasthan. India would have gone back to various monarchies ruled by different clans but would have politically behaved as a single entity.


 


So Wilson Hanter has succesfully argued that india under various princes was a politically conherent entity. And had British not arrived would have continued to be one.

Originally posted by HaloChanter


So to say "Britain was mean to Indians because so and so, and Britain did this to India so its bad, etc etc" is really far too general and discriminative.
 
British policy in the Indian states, for example, was far from 'careless about Indian beliefs'.  Ritual, display and ceremony were upheld and respected in the majority of cases. Residency kitchens, for example, were kept stiffly along religious and cultural caste lines. As were military cantonments and regimental camps in the field. As well as messes in British Presidencies.

Yes  but we have to figure out why this was done. Brits understood two things :
a) Not hurt religious sentiments of the majority in India, as in breakeing temples and converting people (as was done by sultanate and mughals consequent of which mughals were *always* treated as foreign invaders by locals in India)
b) They realised indians fought well when organised on caste lines. So a sikh army would not do well if led by a dogra general and vice versa. This caused being sensitive to these groups in terms of eating habit etc.

So vested interest at work.

Originally posted by HaloChanter


The causes of the Indian Mutiny of 1857 were not directly the result of disrespect for Indian religions or customs, but more the perceived threat to those factors. There was never a strong Christian missionary force at work, there was no great plan to introduce forced use of pig or cow fat in the cartridges of guns, and the enforcement of certain anti-religious or caste regulations in the military were quickly repealed.

No. The primary reason for 1857 revolt was economic exploitation by the british.  Indian kings  in bad monsoon or draught would act humanely and not collect taxes or reduce the rate. But british collectors on the other hand were not sensitive to failure of crops. Secondly brits tried to re-organize the land holdings which caused further  resntment in the landed class.  Rebellion actually started in present Madhya Pradesh in 1830's and was the pre-cursor of 1857. Reasons were purely economic.

Originally posted by HaloChanter


Furthermore, the accusation that Britons were brutal is so general and unsupportable as to be laughable. Remember, at any one point in the British Raj there were very few Britons at all. In a population of some hundred millions, there were only ever about 150,000-200,000 British souls in the sub-continent, half of those soldiers. If you mean brutality in war, the British were benign in comparison to the Marathas, the Pathans, the Moguls, or Mysore. Outrages committed by the military of a power is a universal phenomenon, and you must remember in the case of Britisih power in India, it was predominantly composed of Indians.

Economic exploitation of India and large scale uprooting of indigenous business to augment the industries of England was done very brutally. In Bengal alone because of this millions died. Only crops which industries in england needed were allowed to be sold. This led to aritificially created oversupply which resulted in cheap prices for the brits of such crops e.g. indigo in bengal and local population could not even get two square meals! (because if the farmer sowed anything else brit collectors would not allow that produce to be sold). So it was subtle but very devastating.

Originally posted by HaloChanter


In the cases of industrialisation or general economic trends, indeed during the late eighteenth century and early nineteenth century there was a trend to enrich Britain over India. Indeed that is the pattern of every earthly empire in history. The reason it flowed out of India, however, is because the central authority of the British empire did not reside in India, but in Britain. However, from the mid-nineteenth century onward a vast amount of investment, unknown before in the history of the subcontinent, poured in through the medium of canals, irrigation, roads, bridges, telegraphs, tanks, schools, civic institutions, medicine and communication. Before British rule the Punjab was an under-cultivated, dry land. After its annexation it became the granary of the empire.

Nope. Irrigation canals were being built in India hundreds of years before Brits first stepped in India. And there is no reason to believe that if India remained in the hands of Indians Industrialization would not have taken place. What you are saying seems to be an apologists view.
 
Originally posted by HaloChanter


Anyway, I promised myself I would not get dragged in to this kind of argument. But to assume one action offended all Indians under British rule is to assume a uniform, common Indian society. What the banning of Sutti meant in Awadh is not the same as it meant in Nagpur. What the Mutiny of 1857 meant in the Delhi territories is not the same as what it meant in the Punjab.

Well you can guess the dichotomy by the fact that Indians call 1857 first war of independence whether in Punjab or Nagpur while Brits call it Sepoy revolt.



Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2008 at 06:29
Originally posted by pikeshot1600

The anti-British sentiments here border on pathology.  Some people in India condemning Britain for things that have contributed to their success, and blaming the British for much of what has made that success possible.
 
I am impressed with HaloChanter's last post.
 
No, anti-British feelings border on the fact Britain financially abused India, so it fell from 20% of world economy to roughly 3% at Independence.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_past_GDP_%28PPP%29 - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_past_GDP_%28PPP%29
 
And before you criticize or "repudiate" understand that the general idea and general trend is the Indians were better off without the British. Turkey industrialized, China industrialized in 20 years, so when you mention in in Washington, all the Senators tinkle in their pants. Japan industrialized, Thailand, Ethiopia, Iran, you name it.
 
The only thing, and this is the only thing, the British gave India (that they never meant to) that India could not have achieved with its own hands is Hinduist Nationalism. Because the idea of nationalism sprang from Western Europe, and was set into the minds of the elite.
 
Hinduistic Nationalism because of British treatment to the Hindus. The British left India because they couldnt maintain Bharat from Pakistan to Myanmar, anymore.


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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2008 at 07:13
Britain united India, ironically India united due to Britain, for the sake of fighting Britain.
 
Without the British, India wouldnt be united as it is today.


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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2008 at 07:36
Originally posted by HaloChanter

The thing that bugs me most about this thread, is the use of "Indian".
 
 
         Ok when we were discussing Alexander's invasion into the Punjab, the westerners were "bugged" by the use of the word Pakistan rather than India, and now when the word India is used as opposed to Pakistan or Gujrat it "bugs" westerners. The way a westerner's mind works only a westerner can understand. 


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2008 at 07:42
Originally posted by HaloChanter

Before British rule the Punjab was an under-cultivated, dry land. After its annexation it became the granary of the empire.
 
 
           Even with being an "under cultivated" "dry land" it was probably among the 5 richest lands in the world, at all times through out its history.


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2008 at 08:00
Originally posted by Omar al HashimThat's just wrong basically. The buddhist population converted to islam. Haven't you noticed that the areas with large buddhist populations now have large muslim ones? [/QUOTE

 
              I am pretty sure that most of Punjab at the time of Muhammad Bin Qasim was&nbs
 
              I am pretty sure that most of Punjab at the time of Muhammad Bin Qasim was  Hindu. Sindh may have had a large Bhuddist population and Kashmir was pre-dominentely Bhuddist.
 
           Most people think that by the time of arrival of Islam here Bhuddist was on its way out, Islam may only have hastened its demise i.e Bhuddist who were about to adopt Hindusim adopted Islam instead.
 
            However south east asia is predominently Bhuddist, despite the fact that Islam went as far as Indonesia.
 
          So there you can never generalize.


Posted By: bilal_ali_2000
Date Posted: 01-Mar-2008 at 08:25
Originally posted by gcle2003

 
Originally posted by Mughaal

I think what hes saying is that Hindic Philosophy adopted Buddhist principles into its system.
 
That might be true to some degree. However what he said was
Hinduism however in its adaptation to Bhuddism banned the eating of meat.  
 
That's what I was challenging. Banning eating meat couldn't have been an adaptation to Buddhism, since Buddhism doesn't ban eating meat (though 'for the purpose of training' it exhorts not to kill līving creatures).
 
And I'm pretty sure the Hindu attitude to it predates Buddhism, as does Jainism.
 
 

I am pretty sure that pre-Bhuddism meat eating was allowed in Hinduism. Animal sacrifice was practiced in Hinduism and i am pretty sure that the meat of the sacrificed animal was eaten. And although i am not sure but i think that in Rig veda the meat of the horse after it was sacrificed was eaten. The people of this region domesticated the pea fowl, why would they do that if thye did not eat meat (egg is a non-vegetarain food). Megasenethes in his Indika talks about an animal which the subcontinentals hunted for its hide and then after its skiining they would discard the coprse. Megasnethes said that thye didn't eat the meat of that particular animal but they did eat the meat of some other certain animals.

And about Bhuddism not banning the eating of meat because it was banned in Hinduism. Well it is quite unlike Bhuddism, it is not a completely reactionary repsonse to Hinduism, in fact it incorporates much philosphies from Hinduism like yogism is the basis of mediation in Bhuddism, Bhuddism argues within the cycle of birth and rebirth and so on.

And recently i was reading an article by an Indian in which he was criticizing an Indian film for appealing to modenr sensibilities by having the Rajputs all eat vegeterain dishes when at the time they savoured many meat dishes.

So there you ahev it not eating meat seem to have been orignally a voluntary act like sati and then only later became a compulsion.

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 


Posted By: HaloChanter
Date Posted: 03-Apr-2008 at 19:21
Sorry, just realised I posted in this thread. Will catch up this weekend but just wanted to reply to one particular post:
 
'No, anti-British feelings border on the fact Britain financially abused India, so it fell from 20% of world economy to roughly 3% at Independence. '
 
- That had far more to do with rising industrialisation in Europe from 1800-1900 than British 'plundering' of India. Had it been left to its own devices, its too much of a stretch of the imagination to believe India would have become an industrial giant and maintained its 20% pre-industrial position. As I'll post this weekend, the so called British 'plundering' of India was not to such a decisive extent, and was of a very brief period.


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Kind regards,

HaloChanter


Posted By: ruffian
Date Posted: 11-Apr-2008 at 05:14
Originally posted by HaloChanter

Sorry, just realised I posted in this thread. Will catch up this weekend but just wanted to reply to one particular post:
 
'No, anti-British feelings border on the fact Britain financially abused India, so it fell from 20% of world economy to roughly 3% at Independence. '
 
- That had far more to do with rising industrialisation in Europe from 1800-1900 than British 'plundering' of India. Had it been left to its own devices, its too much of a stretch of the imagination to believe India would have become an industrial giant and maintained its 20% pre-industrial position. As I'll post this weekend, the so called British 'plundering' of India was not to such a decisive extent, and was of a very brief period.

Please give evidence. Britain's (and earlier mughal) rule wrecked India economically. Please read the thread carefully on how farming was stifled and what happened to GDP. Their is also the currency crisis of late 19th century.




Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 18-Jun-2008 at 06:29
Halo Chanter,

Yes, it had to do with industrialization, however keep in mind the British ruled India. Why were they negligent in bringing industrialization to India?

The motive may have been pure economics (that they needed India as a breadbasket and not as a industrial powerhouse) so they kept it such. However, even this motive has repercussions. Im sure you agree.


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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 18-Jun-2008 at 06:42
The Mughals made Hindustan the richest country in the world.
As for the British, it is true that industrialisation was discouraged, as was British policy till at least 1914, when for the first time India rail was allowed to make its own carriages. Otherwise the carriages were made...........................in Swindon.
 
And we all know what happened in 1914.
 


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Posted By: Mughal e Azam
Date Posted: 18-Jun-2008 at 06:58
What happened in 1914?

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Mughal e Azam


Posted By: eventhorizon
Date Posted: 21-Aug-2008 at 06:33
WW I started in 1914.

The British destroyed the top tier management structure of the sub-continent and developed a 2nd tier structure to help them exploit the resources as all Mercantile empires do. The interest of the people of the sub-continent was the last thing in their list of goals, that is why the world share of GDP of Hindustan went from 25% at 1700 to 5% in 1947. This was done with an active policy of discouraging industrial development and making British India a source of raw material and a market for British goods, lets remember Gandhi's swadesi andolon. Also, after 1857, they had an active policy of divide and rule which helped polarize Hindu and Muslim communities and resulted in partition. They also lost Afghanistan which was a part of Mughal Hindustan. It is because of British policies and also the lack of foresight of the indigenous political leadership (2nd tier to 1st tier transition takes time) we now have 4 different countries called India, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan instead of one, which could help keep Tibet and Xinjiang independent. Now all 4 countries have their own dynamics and are moving further apart despite efforts like SAARC, humpty dumpty has already broken.

Does this mean we should blame the British, no, if it was not the British, it would be French or somebody else, the fault always lies with indigenous leaders and population, if sovereignty cannot be maintained and protected at all costs then this is the expected result. If we have to blame anyone we should blame late Mughal rulers and strategists, how they could not pacify rebellious populations and how they could not foresee the result of giving trading privilege to European companies.


Posted By: MarcoPolo
Date Posted: 05-Sep-2008 at 00:02
Thanks to the British, India has immense infrastructure, government and educational institutions, railways connecting the vast land mass, Army/Police training grounds, Industrial facilities that it would never have established on its own, post offices, a newly established ''Common Indian'' Identity...which prior to their arrival, never existed in South Asia..  South Asia was a collection of several states.  For all intents and purpose, Indian's should be very thankful to the british! for if it wasnt for them, there would be no india today!


Posted By: eventhorizon
Date Posted: 05-Sep-2008 at 02:04
Originally posted by MarcoPolo

Thanks to the British, India has immense infrastructure, government and educational institutions, railways connecting the vast land mass, Army/Police training grounds, Industrial facilities that it would never have established on its own, post offices, a newly established ''Common Indian'' Identity...which prior to their arrival, never existed in South Asia..  South Asia was a collection of several states.  For all intents and purpose, Indian's should be very thankful to the british! for if it wasnt for them, there would be no india today!
 
As if India could not do any of the above without the British, this is the first time I have heard that a colonizer and mercantilist imperial power that sucked a country dry and destroyed its social fabric was good for the country. In 1700 Mughal Hindustan's GDP was 25% of worlds GDP and in 1913 British India's GDP was 7.6% of world GDP.
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_regions_by_past_GDP_%28PPP - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_regions_by_past_GDP_(PPP )
 
Once India lost its sovereignty, it could no longer take measures to industrialize and compete in the world market, local industries were not encouraged, instead it was made into a raw material source and a market for mainly British and other European industrial goods.
 
I am curious to know what you think of Ghaffar Khan and his movement.


Posted By: Chintaram
Date Posted: 05-Sep-2008 at 15:53
British by far were better tha Mughals and other Rulers. Today there are lot of people who criticize British for Communal Riots in India as in their Divide and Rule Policy. But I honestly think they were quite lenient in their ruling approach. Imagine India under Portuguese wouldnt have had communal riots as the entire population would have been Roman Catholic with surnames like Rodrigues, Ronaldo, Pinto...........

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Visit got the best jokes
www.chintaram.com


Posted By: eventhorizon
Date Posted: 06-Sep-2008 at 21:42
Originally posted by Chintaram

British by far were better tha Mughals and other Rulers. Today there are lot of people who criticize British for Communal Riots in India as in their Divide and Rule Policy. But I honestly think they were quite lenient in their ruling approach. Imagine India under Portuguese wouldnt have had communal riots as the entire population would have been Roman Catholic with surnames like Rodrigues, Ronaldo, Pinto...........


Muslims in India would not convert to Roman Catholicism and Hindu's who resisted Muslim conversion for a 1000 years would not either. India/Hindustan is not comparable to Philippines or South America. Credit to the Hindu's who still retain their thousands of years old civilization after getting mauled for more than a 1000 years. India as the spiritual leader of Asia has always exported religion, the people who became Muslims are descended from foreign immigrants (a small minority) and Dalit/Shudra/Adivasi from lower strata and margins of society to escape oppression and improve their social standing. Mughals were not saints, but they did not transport wealth and capital to their homeland like the British and created a wealthy functioning society with wonderful architecture, but their biggest failure was letting in European traders and let them establish trading out-posts. The corrupt sycophant middle class that the British created, is responsible for the partition and much of underdevelopment of the subcontinent.


Posted By: calvo
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2008 at 13:36
I heard that in the 1600s and the 1700s, during the early phases of the colonization, the British actually extensively intermarried with the Indians, and many British merchants of the East India company even adopted Indian customs.
 
By the 1800s, much of the mixing seem to have stopped, with the White British colonists living as a separate caste to the locals, who were also divided among castes and religions.
 
When and why did this separation take place?
Were the mix-blooded descendants of the early British colonists in Indian perceived as more "native" or more "British"?


Posted By: Omar al Hashim
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2008 at 10:06
When and why did this separation take place?

As the steamship allowed faster transportation to India, British families started coming out. Single men, months from home, tended to intermix and join indian society, but married men with families - who sent their children back to England for education - didn't.
Basically, blame British women


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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2008 at 10:36
To misquote:
 
The fault, dear Omar, lies not in our women, but in ourselves if we are underlings.


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Posted By: rcscwc
Date Posted: 01-Apr-2009 at 09:02
Originally posted by Sparten

The British were not the first ones to unite S Asia. The Mauryans, the Khiljis, the Mughals etc. ANd BTW there is still no India, it has what 17 insurgencies going on right now. The only thing new S Asia got out of British rule were railroads and syphallis. And I suspect it would have gotten both anyhow.
 
Railroads were laid purely on military consideration. So much so, here were staffed by the British and Anglo-Indians. Same for posts and telegraphs.
 
British exploited India and siphoned its wealth to enrich England, Australia ans New ZeaLands, theit "white" dominions.


Posted By: Jallaludin Akbar
Date Posted: 02-Apr-2009 at 22:09
I am just curious,

Poverty in India is widely accepted to have its origins to British colonialism. Is this information correct. Does Indian poverty have its origins to the British? How so?


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"First they ignore you, then they ridicule you, then they fight you, then you win."
-Mahatma Gandhi



Posted By: MarcoPolo
Date Posted: 06-Apr-2009 at 20:28
Originally posted by Jallaludin Akbar

I am just curious,

Poverty in India is widely accepted to have its origins to British colonialism. Is this information correct. Does Indian poverty have its origins to the British? How so?
 
that doesnt make any sense, widely accepted by who? If anything its the opposite.  The arrival of the British was beneficial from a poverty index point of view.  Statistics, facts and even WHO figures show otherwise. 
 
Poverty has in a matter of speaking, always been endemic to india and some other parts of South Asia.  In fact, when the British arrived to the region, they were often shocked and taken back at the degree of poverty and caste distinction/discrimination they witnessed.  Its ironic, because the British themselves like the rest of Europe where caught up in the theories of race designation/superiority, but what they saw and witnessed in india was in many ways a human tragedy in their eyes.  Having come from Europe, conquering and colonizing parts of the middle east and east asia, the degree of poverty and degradation seen in india was unparalleled. Many aid workers, social workers, philanthropists and health care professionals flooded to the British colony of india. 
 
The British, subsequently over the time of their rule, undertook several steps to enlighten and improve the conditions of the commoner and poor in the region, something that no indian or previous foreign conqueror had ever done or would have done.  They established schools, hospitals, civil policy, social programs, enacted and instituted public policy and civilian laws on a massive wholesale level, in all municipalities irrespective of the people living there, that altered indian society as a whole and that broke centuries of inherent caste based racism inbeded within indian society and the predominant hindoo faith of its people.  Those positive effects are still rippling through indian society to this day.  If anything, the endemic and continuous cycle of poverty has been minimized and a possible ''out'' achieved for the poor and destitute in india, this has all been made possible by the efforts of the British and their Administrative undertakings in india and they should be credited with it. 
 
 Furthermore, the British where able to oust the foreign empires that had conquered india for thousands of years prior to their arrival, while they at a time where conquerors themselves, as history shows they did eventually leave South Asia,  altering the social undercurrents of the region, enlarging and in essence creating the country ''india'' in the process,  infusing a new nationality that never existed before(at least not on such a scale), built institutions, railways/roads and administrative networks to run and hold such a vast territory and more importantly left the newly created and vast country in the hands of the indigenous indian people for the first time, who had only known foreign conquerors and being conquered bar a few rare historical exceptions.   I think most people would agree that india has much to be thankful for when it comes to the British.


Posted By: Jinit
Date Posted: 04-Apr-2013 at 00:28
Sorry I don't understand this concept that the British rule united the India. When the British left, they not only gave freedom to the India and Pakistan but also to the 562 princely state. and most of the Big princely states didn't want to join the India at all (states like Jammu - Kashmir & Hyderabad were actually bigger than the England itself). The humongous task of merging them into the India was done by the skillful use of diplomatic and millitary force by the Sardar Patel (just like the Bismark did with the german states). India was as much fragmented in 1947 as it was before the starting of the colonial rule. Not to forget that many of the princely states were the creation of the colonial rule. For eg there wasn't an independant kingdom of Jammu and kashmir. It was the part of Sikh confedarcy. However the British created it to provide the buffer for their own territory at the end of the Anglo sikh wars. So I don't see why should the British rule should be given credit for the work done by the Indian leaders
 
and lets not even start about the Democracy and railways and so on. Democracy in the India is the achievment of the Indians. If it was the gift of the British than what about those African colonies and Pakistan? didn't the Britain give the same gift to them?
 
And railways and vaccines would have come to India even without the British rule. And not to mention that all those achievements, (many of them were partially done to secure their rule and for their own benefits and not for the purpose of welfare) seems very dull in comparison to the failures of British rule like the man made famines during the colonial era in which atleast 50 to 60 million people died. not to mention those millions of people displaced and or killed during the partition of 1947. 



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