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Iran=Aryan=Nazi?

Printed From: History Community ~ All Empires
Category: Regional History or Period History
Forum Name: Post-Classical Middle East
Forum Discription: SW Asia, the Middle East and Islamic civilizations from 600s - 1900 AD
URL: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=15798
Printed Date: 10-Jun-2024 at 04:19
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Topic: Iran=Aryan=Nazi?
Posted By: Guests
Subject: Iran=Aryan=Nazi?
Date Posted: 26-Oct-2006 at 23:51
Considering  the Iranian's comments on  Israel, is there a connection between their name: Iran, and  Aryan?



Replies:
Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 01:52
Iran manes land of Aryan I beleive. And the name has always been Iran AFAIK.


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Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 02:35
In principle at least it would be true.

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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 07:27
What's misleading is to equate 'Aryan' with 'Nazi'. The Nazi concept of 'Aryan' has nothing to do with the actual Aryans.
 
Iran of course is not the only Aryan country, just the only one to use the name.


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 12:25
Originally posted by gcle2003

Iran of course is not the only Aryan country, just the only one to use the name.


Which are the other Aryan countries gcle2003.
    

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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 12:43
Originally posted by LAGoff

Considering  the Iranian's comments on  Israel, is there a connection between their name: Iran, and  Aryan?
 
Aryanem was also the name of the country when Cyrus freed the Jews, Iran was the name of the country when the Jews aided the Sassanid invasion of Palestine. 
 
Aryan does not mean hater of Jews.  And indeed, "the Iranian" has nothing against Jews, he has stated that "Palestine" should be a place where Jews, Christians and Muslims should be able to live in peace. The paralells drawn between the regime in Iran, backward and oppressive as it be (to all of its citizens), are fallacious and malicious.
 
Anyone who beleives that Ahmadinezhad stated that Israel must be "wiped" of the map is an unwitting propaganda victim, unfortunately:
 
Again it is four short words, though the distortion is worse than in the Khrushchev case. The remarks are not out of context. They are wrong, pure and simple. Ahmadinejad never said them. Farsi speakers have pointed out that he was mistranslated. The Iranian president was quoting an ancient statement by Iran's first Islamist leader, the late Ayatollah Khomeini, that "this regime occupying Jerusalem must vanish from the page of time" just as the Shah's regime in Iran had vanished.
 
http://www.guardian.co.uk/commentisfree/story/0,,1788542,00.html - http://www.guardian.co.uk/commentisfree/story/0,,1788542,00.html
 
 
 
 


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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 14:44
Originally posted by Zagros

 
Anyone who beleives that Ahmadinezhad stated that Israel must be "wiped" of the map is an unwitting propaganda victim, unfortunately:
 
 
 
Could anyone translate what these unwitting  propaganda victims have written on their posters?
 
 
I think it's Malaysian or Indonesian and says something about Israel and maps.
But I could have misunderstood that, as much as these poor people might have misunderstod the good President's remarks.
 
 


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Posted By: Siege Tower
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 16:26
They are Anti-zionist, not Jewish, so they shouldn't be considered as Nazi

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Posted By: Spartakus
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 16:30
The difference between Nazi Aryan and the real Aryans (Iranis) is that the Nazis were using the term Nordic Aryan for themselves.

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"There are worse crimes than burning books. One of them is not reading them. "
--- Joseph Alexandrovitch Brodsky, 1991, Russian-American poet, b. St. Petersburg and exiled 1972 (1940-1996)


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 21:38
Originally posted by Komnenos

Originally posted by Zagros

 
Anyone who beleives that Ahmadinezhad stated that Israel must be "wiped" of the map is an unwitting propaganda victim, unfortunately:
 
 
 
Could anyone translate what these unwitting  propaganda victims have written on their posters?
 
 
I think it's Malaysian or Indonesian and says something about Israel and maps.
But I could have misunderstood that, as much as these poor people might have misunderstod the good President's remarks.
 
 
 
It's not Persian, and that is the language that Ahamdinezhad spoke... He does not even utter the word Israel.. at all... ever, he has decried, on more than one occassion teh propaganda directed against him - but you never hear of that do you?  These people may agree with the misquoted statement in their misguided hate, and ignorance of what he actually said, but all that means is that they too are neo-con propaganda victims... 
 
I have no love for Ahamdinezhad nor the regime that he represents, but what I absolutely abhor, however, is the perpetuation of a malicious fallacy directed against the nation of Iran by the imperialist, mass murderers that are the neo-con-pro-zionist war mongers that constitute the ruling elite of the United States and Israel.
 
They pushed for WAR (where millions of people are either killed or left destitute) against Iraq based on a shameless LIE and they are attempting the same on Iran, drawing on the same , OLD and tired analogies to NAZISM; the biggest blessing EVER to befall Zionism.
 
 


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Posted By: flyingzone
Date Posted: 27-Oct-2006 at 22:09
I do not understand how "Nazism" can be a blessing to "Zionism." The Nazis massacred millions of innocent people who had nothing to do with Zionism. Do you mean those people deserved to die just because of guilt by association?
 
I find this statement utterly unacceptable.


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 01:56
 There was a country called Persia not so long ago.  When did it stop being called Persia and start calling itself Iran; and I assume that if it occured around the 1930's(i.e., the time of fascism) then those who changed the name might have done it as a homage to you know who?  Sounds logical, doesn't it?


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 02:40

Its always been Iran. In Cyrus the Great time all the way to the Ayatollahs. It was never persia.



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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 04:13
Originally posted by Zagros

 
It's not Persian, and that is the language that Ahamdinezhad spoke... He does not even utter the word Israel.. at all... ever, he has decried, on more than one occassion teh propaganda directed against him - but you never hear of that do you?  These people may agree with the misquoted statement in their misguided hate, and ignorance of what he actually said, but all that means is that they too are neo-con propaganda victims... 
 
I have no love for Ahamdinezhad nor the regime that he represents, but what I absolutely abhor, however, is the perpetuation of a malicious fallacy directed against the nation of Iran by the imperialist, mass murderers that are the neo-con-pro-zionist war mongers that constitute the ruling elite of the United States and Israel.
 
They pushed for WAR (where millions of people are either killed or left destitute) against Iraq based on a shameless LIE and they are attempting the same on Iran, drawing on the same , OLD and tired analogies to NAZISM; the biggest blessing EVER to befall Zionism.
 
 
 
Initially, I was going to comment on the matter itself, on the semantics of Ahamdinezhad's famous statement and all that, but then I read the last line, and there's nothing to say anymore really...
Of all the comments on the Palestine conflict posted here on AE, this must be the most obscene, and, as fyingzone already said, is simply a shameless insult to all those who died as victims of Nazi-Germany , and to all those who fought against it.
Zionism is a political idea, but  as such it is being held by real people, and to state that people who lost more than six Million of their own and witnessed the slaughter of many more Millions of other nations, might regard or experience the cause of such crimes as a "blessing", is, well, obscene.
From here to the "Protocols of the Elders of Zion" is only a very small step.
 


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 06:11

When everybody is done with the pious chest thumping about the evils of Nazisim, we can at least discuss zagros statment in a detached unemotional manner, as the mature adults we are supposed to be. I don't necessarily agree with him, but he has got a point, certainly without Nazism, it is very difficult to see a state fo Israel, which was zionism's true aim. So you can say that Nazism was perhaps a help for Zionism (certainly not an apprceiated one I imagine) in achieving its aims.

 
Then again without the effects of the Second world war, lots of countries would not be on the map today, Pakistan for instance.
 


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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 06:51
Originally posted by Sparten

When everybody is done with the pious chest thumping about the evils of Nazisim, we can at least discuss zagros statment in a detached unemotional manner, as the mature adults we are supposed to be. I don't necessarily agree with him, but he has got a point, certainly without Nazism, it is very difficult to see a state fo Israel, which was zionism's true aim. So you can say that Nazism was perhaps a help for Zionism (certainly not an apprceiated one I imagine) in achieving its aims.

 
Then again without the effects of the Second world war, lots of countries would not be on the map today, Pakistan for instance.
 
 
 
As the Shoa was only the latest episode in the century long persecution  that necessitated the creation of a safe haven for the Jewish people, can we then argue that all Anti-Semtism was a "blessing" for the Jews ? The instances of pogroms in the Middle Ages for example, might not be the "biggest", but only a 'smaller" blessing?
Was thus the whole history of Anti-Semitism somewhat of a "blessing" for the Jewish people? History's compensation for their dispersion into diaspora or even a cunning plan to move them all back to Palestine?
The whole argument is as absurd as it is obscene.
 


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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 07:51
Originally posted by flyingzone

I do not understand how "Nazism" can be a blessing to "Zionism." The Nazis massacred millions of innocent people who had nothing to do with Zionism. Do you mean those people deserved to die just because of guilt by association?
 
I find this statement utterly unacceptable.
 
No. I meant no such thing.   I don't even know how you can even deduce that I mean they deserved to die from what I said.  Zionism equates to Nazism, Zionism is a racist and ruthless ideology, just like Nazism. WHAT I actually said "means to say" that Zionists exploit Nazism.  To say that they don't is delusion.** That is what I meant to say, please don't put words into my mouth.
 
The people of the Middle East have nothing to with Zionism, Nazism or any other fascist European ideology, why don't you shed a tear for the millions of them that have been murdered over the last 50 years by Western meddling?  Yes, their lives are not worth a pittance in the racist eyes of the media to which the West subscribes, so I am not surprised.
 
I mean to say that the Zionists/Neo-Cons exploit Nazism and that it is the biggest blessing for them today in pursuing their agenda.  Do you still mean to say that, mine, is an unacceptable view? Now I have elaborated.
 
**Why do they flash pictures of Hitler at AIPAC meetings, then switch to Ahmadinezhad, then demand that Iran be invaded/attacked?  makes me sick.  They obviously don't give a damn about those murdered by the Nazis, otherwise they wouldn't exploit their plight and persecution in such a vial manner.  Your grievances are misguided and should be redirected, if you dare, at AIPAC. 
 
I hope everything's cleared up for you now.
 
 
 


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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 08:16
From here to the "Protocols of the Elders of Zion" is only a very small step.
 
Sorry, but that is what is obscene and unacceptable.
 
Why is some ignorant coming here and calling Iranians Nazis and Jew haters?  Because that is what the Zionists propagate through their various channels of hate and deception.
 
I really enjoyed reading the AIPAC organs' reactions to this:  http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=6839&KW=tehran - http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=6839&KW=tehran
 
The Israeli president even lambasted Iranian Jews at a conference in LA a year or two ago for not supporitng Israel enough.


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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 08:43
Originally posted by Xolotl

Originally posted by gcle2003

Iran of course is not the only Aryan country, just the only one to use the name.


Which are the other Aryan countries gcle2003.
    
 
Anywhere where the native languages are Indo-European. Aryan is a linguistic grouping. It may or may not also be a racial one.


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 09:43
Originally posted by Komnenos

Originally posted by Sparten

When everybody is done with the pious chest thumping about the evils of Nazisim, we can at least discuss zagros statment in a detached unemotional manner, as the mature adults we are supposed to be. I don't necessarily agree with him, but he has got a point, certainly without Nazism, it is very difficult to see a state fo Israel, which was zionism's true aim. So you can say that Nazism was perhaps a help for Zionism (certainly not an apprceiated one I imagine) in achieving its aims.

 
Then again without the effects of the Second world war, lots of countries would not be on the map today, Pakistan for instance.
 
 
 
As the Shoa was only the latest episode in the century long persecution  that necessitated the creation of a safe haven for the Jewish people, can we then argue that all Anti-Semtism was a "blessing" for the Jews ? The instances of pogroms in the Middle Ages for example, might not be the "biggest", but only a 'smaller" blessing?
Was thus the whole history of Anti-Semitism somewhat of a "blessing" for the Jewish people? History's compensation for their dispersion into diaspora or even a cunning plan to move them all back to Palestine?
The whole argument is as absurd as it is obscene.
 
I spoke only about Nazisim.  It was not the previous persecutions that made israel a reality, but the "Shoa" did.
 
 


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 09:48
Originally posted by gcle2003

Originally posted by Xolotl

Originally posted by gcle2003

Iran of course is not the only Aryan country, just the only one to use the name.


Which are the other Aryan countries gcle2003.
    
 
Anywhere where the native languages are Indo-European. Aryan is a linguistic grouping. It may or may not also be a racial one.
i suppose it was a racial grouping originally, but ceased to be one with expansion. Sort of like English is today in the carribian.
 


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 15:19

quote: "Its always been Iran. In Cyrus the Great time all the way to the Ayatollahs. It was never persia."

But WHEN was it changed back from Persia to Iran? That's the key to the anti-semitism part.  Did it happen during the 30's?  - the time when Aryan- as opposed to any other time- meant association with cruel monsters.  A country named from being inspired by sh*tler is bound to take a crap on Jews- at some point.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 15:39

It has never changed... It has always been called Iran by Iranians, always.  Reza Shah requested that the name Iran be recognised internationally in 1936, as Persia was not representative of Iran's ethnic groups.

Iran was a neutral country during WW2, PM Chamberlain of the UK PRAISED Hitler and the Nazis in the 30s... Now, there is a much better case for "anti-semitism" there, considering Britain too has a dark murderous "anti-semitic" history. 
 
There is no key to the "anti-semitism" part, Reza shah was a nationalist and wanted the nation to be called by its correct name.  If Iran was "anti-semitic" at any point, during its LONG history, it would have killed its Jews like the Europeans (most notably Germans and Spanish) did (OVER AND OVER AGAIN) - Iran was a haven for Polish Jews during the second world war and has one of the oldest Jewish communities of the world, about 2450 years older than that of Israel.  Never once, in recorded history, have Jews been killed for being Jews in Iran.
 
There is no correlation between anti-semitism and Iran's name.... How did you ever summise such a ridiculous notion?
 
----
 
Aryan is a specific  branch of the IE linguistic tree...


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 16:19
 
 
From answers.com  http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache:aLW_GnFJvGwJ:www.answers.com/topic/reza-shah+reza+shah+Iran+Nazi&hl=en&gl=us&ct=clnk&cd=2&ie=UTF-8 - http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache:aLW_GnFJvGwJ:www.answers.com/topic/reza-shah+reza+shah+Iran+Nazi&hl=en&gl=us&ct=clnk&cd=2&ie=UTF-8
 
Under Reza Shah's watch, the country changed its name as well. According to The New York Times, "At the suggestion of the Persian Legation in http://www.answers.com/topic/berlin - Berlin , the Teheran government, on the http://www.answers.com/topic/no-ruz - Persian New Year , http://www.answers.com/topic/march-21 - March 21 , http://www.answers.com/topic/1935 - 1935 , substituted Iran for Persia as the official name of the country. In its decision it was influenced by the Nazi revival of interest in the so-called http://www.answers.com/topic/aryan - Aryan races, cradled in ancient Persia. As the Ministry of Foreign Affairs set forth in its memorandum on the subject, 'Perse,' the French designation of Persia, connoted the weakness and tottering independence of the country in the nineteenth century, when it was the chessboard of European imperialistic rivalry. 'Iran,' by contrast, conjured up memories of the vigor and splendor of its historic past." http://www.answers.com/topic/reza-shah#wp-_note-4 - [7]
 
 
And here from reference.com
 
http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache:iTqmx1DGM7YJ:reference.com/browse/wiki/Reza_Pahlavi_of_Iran+reza+shah+Iran+Nazi&hl=en&gl=us&ct=clnk&cd=5&ie=UTF-8 - http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache:iTqmx1DGM7YJ:reference.com/browse/wiki/Reza_Pahlavi_of_Iran+reza+shah+Iran+Nazi&hl=en&gl=us&ct=clnk&cd=5&ie=UTF-8
Under Reza Shah's watch, the country changed its name as well. According to The New York Times, "At the suggestion of the Persian Legation in http://www.reference.com/browse/wiki/Berlin - Berlin , the Teheran government, on the http://www.reference.com/browse/wiki/Persian_New_Year - Persian New Year , http://www.reference.com/browse/wiki/March_21 - March 21 , http://www.reference.com/browse/wiki/1935 - 1935 , substituted Iran for Persia as the official name of the country.(It should be noted that the country has already been called Iran by its natives at least since the http://www.reference.com/browse/wiki/3rd_century - 3rd century . However, in west it was referred to as Persia.) It has been suggested that this decision was the result of the Nazi revival of interest in the so-called http://www.reference.com/browse/wiki/Aryan - Aryan races, cradled in ancient Persia. As the Ministry of Foreign Affairs set forth in its memorandum on the subject, 'Perse,' the French designation of Persia, connoted the weakness and tottering independence of the country in the nineteenth century, when it was the chessboard of European imperialistic rivalry. 'Iran,' by contrast, conjured up memories of the vigor and splendor of its historic past. The very name “Iran” means “Aryan”.


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 18:06

That is not the rationale put forth in Iran at the time, although Iran, like the USA and many other countries did have links with the Germans  -

Furthermore, the regime of 1930s could not be much farther removed from today's so the linkage is null.
 


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Posted By: malizai_
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 18:19
Originally posted by Komnenos

Originally posted by Sparten

When everybody is done with the pious chest thumping about the evils of Nazisim, we can at least discuss zagros statment in a detached unemotional manner, as the mature adults we are supposed to be. I don't necessarily agree with him, but he has got a point, certainly without Nazism, it is very difficult to see a state fo Israel, which was zionism's true aim. So you can say that Nazism was perhaps a help for Zionism (certainly not an apprceiated one I imagine) in achieving its aims.

 
Then again without the effects of the Second world war, lots of countries would not be on the map today, Pakistan for instance.
 
 
 
As the Shoa was only the latest episode in the century long persecution  that necessitated the creation of a safe haven for the Jewish people, can we then argue that all Anti-Semtism was a "blessing" for the Jews ? The instances of pogroms in the Middle Ages for example, might not be the "biggest", but only a 'smaller" blessing?
Was thus the whole history of Anti-Semitism somewhat of a "blessing" for the Jewish people? History's compensation for their dispersion into diaspora or even a cunning plan to move them all back to Palestine?
The whole argument is as absurd as it is obscene.
 
 
 
How do u know that these jews were semites?


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 19:08

No connection between Iran and Nazis?

9. In order to help the listener to better understand the historical relationship between Iran and Nazi Germany, Mr. Emory presents an article by Edwin Black, the author of The War Against the Weak, IBM and the Holocaust, and The Transfer Agreement. “Mahmoud Ahmadinejad has shot to the forefront of Holocaust denial with his rabble-rousing remarks last month. But it's more like self-denial. The president of Iran need only look to his country's Hitler-era past to discover that Iran and Iranians were strongly connected to the Holocaust and the Hitler regime, as was the entire Islamic world under the leadership of the mufti of Jerusalem. Iran's axis with the Third Reich began during the prewar years, when it welcomed Nazi Gestapo agents and other operatives to Tehran, allowing them to use the city as a base for Middle East agitation against the British and the region's Jews. Key among these German agents was Fritz Grobba, Berlin's envoy to the Middle East, who was often called ‘the German Lawrence,’ because he promised a Pan-Islamic state stretching from Casablanca to Tehran. Relations between Berlin and Tehran were strong from the moment Hitler came to power in 1933. At that time, Reza Shah Pahlavi's nation was known as Persia. The shah became a stalwart admirer of Hitler, Nazism and the concept of the Aryan master race. He also sought the Reich's help in reducing British petro-political domination.” (“Denial of Holocaust Nothing New in Iran Ties to Hitler Led to Plots Against British and Jews” by Edwin Black; San Francisco Chronicle; 1/8/2006; accessed at: http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/article.cgi?file=/chronicle/archive/2006/01/08/INGODGH99Q1.DTL.)

10. “So intense was the shah's identification with the Third Reich that in 1935 he renamed his ancient country ‘Iran,’ which in Farsi means Aryan and refers to the Proto-Indo-European lineage that Nazi racial theorists and Persian ethnologists cherished. The idea for the name change was suggested by the Iranian ambassador to Germany, who came under the influence of Hitler's trusted banker, Hjalmar Schacht. From that point, all Iranians were constantly reminded that their country shared a common bond with the Nazi regime.” (Idem.)

11. Note the presence in this sequence of events of Haj Amin al-Husseini, the Grand Mufti of Jerusalem. The Grand Mufti was the first leader of the Palestinian movement and an individual whose presence figures prominently in the history of World War II, the Middle East, international fascism and the events in and around 9/11. (For more about the Grand Mufti, see—among other programs—FTR#’s 354, 414, 416, 456.) “Shortly after World War II broke out in 1939, the Mufti of Jerusalem crafted a strategic alliance with Hitler to exchange Iraqi oil for active Arab and Islamic participation in the murder of Jews in the Mideast and Eastern Europe. This was predicated on support for a pan-Arab state and Arab control over Palestine. During the war years, Iran became a haven for Gestapo agents. It was from Iran that the seeds of the abortive 1941 pro-Nazi coup in Baghdad were planted. After Churchill's forces booted the Nazis out of Iraq in June 1941, German aircrews supporting Nazi bombers escaped across Iraq's northern border back into Iran. Likewise, the mufti of Jerusalem was spirited across the border to Tehran, where he continued to call for the destruction of the Jews and the defeat of the British.” (Idem.)

12. “His venomous rhetoric filled the newspapers and radio broadcasts in Tehran. The mufti was a vocal opponent of allowing Jewish refugees to be transported or ransomed into Jewish Palestine. Instead, he wanted them shipped to the gas chambers of Poland. In the summer of 1941, the mufti, with the support of key Iranian military and government leaders, advocated implementing in Iran what had failed months earlier in Iraq. The plan once again was for a total diversion of oil from the Allies to the Nazis, in exchange for the accelerated destruction of the Jews in Eastern Europe and the Nazis' support for an Arab state. Through the Anglo-Iranian Oil Co., Iran had already been supplying Hitler's forces in occupied Czechoslovakia and Austria. Now, the mufti agitated to cut off the British and the Allies completely and supply Germany in its push against Russia.” (Idem.)

13. “In October 1941, British, USSR other allied forces invaded Iran to break up the Iran-Nazi alliance. Pro-Nazi generals and ministers were arrested, and the shah's son was installed in power. The mufti scampered into the Italian embassy, where he shaved his beard and dyed his hair. In this disguise, he was allowed to leave the country along with the rest of the Italian delegation. Once the mufti relocated permanently to Berlin, where he established his own Reich-supported ‘bureau,’ he was given airtime on Radio Berlin. From Berlin and other fascist capitals in Europe, the mufti continued to agitate for international Jewish destruction, as well as a pan-Islamic alliance with the Nazi regime.” (Idem.)

14. “He called upon all Muslims to ‘kill the Jews wherever you see them.’ In Tehran's marketplace, it was common to see placards that declared, ‘In heaven, Allah is your master. On Earth, it is Adolf Hitler.’ When the mufti raised three divisions of Islamic Waffen SS to undertake cruel operations in Bosnia, among the 30,000 killers were some volunteer contingents from Iran. Iranian Nazis, along with the other Muslim Waffen SS, operated under the direct supervision of Heinrich Himmler and were responsible for barbarous actions against Jews and others in Bosnia. Recruitment for the murderous ‘Handschar Divisions’ was done openly in Iran. Iran and its leaders were not only aware of the Holocaust, they played both sides. The country offered overland escape routes for refugee Jews fleeing Nazi persecution to Israel -- and later fleeing postwar Iraqi fascist persecution -- but only in exchange for extortionate passage fees.” (Idem.)


From:  http://ftrsummary.blogspot.com/2006/09/ftr-565-middle-east-matrix.html - http://ftrsummary.blogspot.com/2006/09/ftr-565-middle-east-matrix.html



Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 20:19
I am sorry that you rely on such poor sources for your information... It is little wonder, given the title of this thread.  The source on which that anti-Iranian diatribe is based on Edwin Black's insubstantiable defamation of Iran's history... It is evident from teh fact that the article CITES NO sources as to its fantastic claims such as there being Iranian Waffen... Or that an order was issued to kill all Jews, or that there was even an Iran-Germany alliance.
 
So An order was issued byt eh Padishah to kill all Jews? WELL HOWCOME NONE WERE KILLED? Why did Iran take refugees from Europe's war?
 
Here is a well written with extracts from credible sources, would you believe!
 
http://www.iranvajahan.net/cgi-bin/news.pl?l=en&y=2006&m=01&d=08&a=6 - http://www.iranvajahan.net/cgi-bin/news.pl?l=en&y=2006&m=01&d=08&a=6
 
A Reply to Jewish Telegraph Agency

An ill researched article appeared in the Jewish Telegraph Agency by Edwin Black: http://www.jta.org/page_view_story.asp?intarticleid=16133&intcategoryid=2 - http://www.jta.org/page_view_story.asp?intarticleid=16133&intcategoryid=2

The article also appeared in the Jewish Times but thankfully it appears it has been withdrawn. (I hope I am correct in assuming this) Nevertheless the article still appears on the Jewish Telegraph Agency website. [The article also appeared in The San Francisco Chronicle.]

The article carries ignorant statements such as :

"....
So intense was the shah's identification with the Third Reich that in 1935 he renamed his ancient country "Iran," which in Farsi means Aryan and refers to the Proto-Indo-European lineage that Nazi racial theorists and Persian ethnologists cherished..."

Perhaps, Edwin Black, who should be writing children's book instead, should have bothered to read some of Iran's rich literature and relaised that Iran has always been called Iran by Iranians. The Book of Kings written by Ferdowsi 1000 years ago, is just one example from thousands, that refers to our country as Iran. Was Ferdowsi, therefore, a Third Reich supporter according to Mr. Black?
 
Here is another article debunking the myths you posted.
 
http://www.iranian.com/AbbasMilani/2006/February/Black/index.html - http://www.iranian.com/AbbasMilani/2006/February/Black/index.html
 
Mr. Black goes on to claim that Iran and its leaders were not only aware of the “Holocaust, they played both parts ... the country offered escape routes for refugee Jews ... but only in exchange for extortionate passage fees.” The man responsible for the transfer of Jewish refugees in Iran -- who went on to become Israel’s ambassador to Iran--has an entirely different story to tell. He writes, “As the Shah of Iran had particular affinity for the Jews, the military and bureaucratic institutions of the country spared no effort in helping refugees reach Israel.” (Moir Ezry’s Yadnameh, vol. 1. p. 52). He goes on to say, “countries like Bulgaria, and Rumania asked for great sums of money from Israel in order to set their Jewish population free. But the Iranian government never asked for any money.”(p. 60)
 
Mr Black should be tried for crimes against history.


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Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 28-Oct-2006 at 20:22
Might I suggest that you stick to credible academic sources in the future?  Edwin Black would sure have felt at home serving in Himmler's cultural propaganda team, the ones who demonised Jews and attempted to rewrite history, he is very apt at the art, Himmler would have been very proud.


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 01:36
Okay, LAGoff, gandhi also supporeted the Nazis, or more specifically told the Germans that India had no quarrel with them. Next you are going to call Gandhi an anti-semite?


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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 05:23
Originally posted by Sparten

[
Originally posted by gcle2003

Originally posted by Xolotl

Originally posted by gcle2003

Iran of course is not the only Aryan country, just the only one to use the name.


Which are the other Aryan countries gcle2003.
    
 
Anywhere where the native languages are Indo-European. Aryan is a linguistic grouping. It may or may not also be a racial one.
i suppose it was a racial grouping originally, but ceased to be one with expansion. Sort of like English is today in the carribian.
 
Rather like that. However which of the groups that now speak aryan languages is the 'original' one is lost in the mists of prehistory. For all we know the original - racial - aryans all died out.


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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 06:24
As mentioned above, to draw any conclusions from the name of the factual Indo-Aryan linguistic group and the name of the totally fictional "Aryan" master-race fantasy of the Nazis, and therefore to deduct an inherent Anti-Semitism in Iranian state or people, is total idiocy.
 
It is thus nothing but a  sad coincidence that the current Mullah regime in the Iran, and especially their leader, have crossed the line between Anti-Zionism and Anti-Semitism, and thus have transgressed from a understandable political oposition to the state of Israel to a policy that attempts to make the most of the still existing Anti-Semite prejudices all over the world.
 
See: http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=14098 - http://www.allempires.com/forum/forum_posts.asp?TID=14098


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[IMG]http://i71.photobucket.com/albums/i137/komnenos/crosses1.jpg">


Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 08:41
Originally posted by gcle2003

 
Anywhere where the native languages are Indo-European.
 
Great.
 
Originally posted by gcle2003

 Aryan is a linguistic grouping.
 
Indo-European is the linguistic grouping.
 
 
Originally posted by gcle2003

It may or may not also be a racial one.
 
Would you care to elaborate.Are Iranians Aryan {Racially}.Are Pakistanis Aryan {Racially}.
 
Are the Brahui,Burushaski and Makrani people of Pakistan non-Aryan {Racially}.
 
What are the defining features of the Aryan race.
 
 


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 09:05
There is no Aryan race. Never has been - the closest thing would be the Aryan tribes that settled in Iran and elsewhere between 1500BC-100AD, but there is no evidence of racial homogenity - various Roman and Greek sources have described Iranians as a diverse people in appearance and that remains the case to this day. Even within the largely isolated nomadic tribes.
 
---
 
Komnenos and flyingzone: I will draw an analogy with my previous statement that you deemed as unacceptable.
 
The atrocities commited against Muslims natioans and people by the Imperialist powers in Iraq, Lebanon, Palestinian occupied territories have been the biggest blessing to befall militant Islam.  Does this in your eyes insult the memory of all those Muslims killed?  My definition of Zionism is not the existence of a state of Israel - it is the ruthless expansionist ideology among that state's ruling elite: the illegal settlement of occupied territory; the treatment of Palestinians as nothing more than animals and the lack of worth placed on their lives as a result. That is Zionism in its modern context.


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Posted By: Komnenos
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 11:27
Originally posted by Zagros

---
 
Komnenos and flyingzone: I will draw an analogy with my previous statement that you deemed as unacceptable.
 
The atrocities commited against Muslims natioans and people by the Imperialist powers in Iraq, Lebanon, Palestinian occupied territories have been the biggest blessing to befall militant Islam.  Does this in your eyes insult the memory of all those Muslims killed? 
 
Is that some sort of trick question?
To call the death of any people a "blessing" for something or someone is just cynical and obscene. Doesn't matter who the victims are.
I have an inkling what you want to say, the choice of words is rather unfortunate.


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[IMG]http://i71.photobucket.com/albums/i137/komnenos/crosses1.jpg">


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 12:09
OK I will reword: rather than the deaths of Muslims, "the political ideology that has driven Western Imperialism against said nations has been the biggest blessing to befall militant Islam".  Since my original statement referred to two ideologies, Zionism and Nazism - the deaths of innocents was then deduced and used to distort what I said - and for that reason I stated "deaths of Muslims" above.
 
It is not a trick question, but I have a feeling that had this been in anotehr thread and i stated that Western Imperialism is the biggest blessing to befall militant Islam, then there would have been no outcry in any shape nor form.
 
And for the record, I stand by both statements equally with regard to Militant Islam and Zionism.
 
 


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Posted By: Guests
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 15:22
Your argument is based on your and another bloggers flack[and one URL that malfunctioned] against Edwin Black.  Either what he says is true and therefore Iran's [re]-origination is spiritually tainted with Nazism/anti-semitism, or it's false. 


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 29-Oct-2006 at 16:01
Your argument is based on Myth created by Edwin Black, for which he cites no sources except his imagination, the burden of proof is on you.
 
For instance, he claims that Iran's demand to have its name correctly recognised by teh international community was inspired in Berlin by the Nazis, because Iran and the Nazis were allied.
 
Iran and the Nazis had no alliance - so there goes the whole basis for his argument - even if there were an Iran Nazi alliance - the defamation is still based on conjecture.


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Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2006 at 05:12
Originally posted by Xolotl1

Originally posted by gcle2003

 
Anywhere where the native languages are Indo-European.
 
Great.
 
Originally posted by gcle2003

 Aryan is a linguistic grouping.
 
Indo-European is the linguistic grouping.
 
 
Originally posted by gcle2003

It may or may not also be a racial one.
 
Would you care to elaborate.Are Iranians Aryan {Racially}.Are Pakistanis Aryan {Racially}.
 
Are the Brahui,Burushaski and Makrani people of Pakistan non-Aryan {Racially}.
 
What are the defining features of the Aryan race.
 
 
 
As Zagros pointed out, there probably is no Aryan race, so there aren't any distinguishing features.
 
The linguistic group is called either Indo-European or Aryan. But the hypothesis that there is/was an 'Aryan race' stems entirely from the discovery of the linguistic group.
 
Some future archaeologists/historian studying the 20th century based on the fragments left after a thousand years would notice that cultures world-wide left documents in some variety of the same language, the one we would call English, They might therefore conclude that there was some racial affinity between all these groups.
 
But they would be wrong.
 


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Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 30-Oct-2006 at 05:25
GCLE, this is exactly what the Indian's say to the theory of Aryan migration.

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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 31-Oct-2006 at 05:52
Except that I thought that you (you personally not necessarily all Indians) think the movement was out of India rather than into it.
 
It doesn't really matter whether it was a racial migration or a cultural expansion or a religious one[1] or bits of all three, it does seem that the 'Aryans' racially similar or not, expanded outwards in all directions from either north of south of the Black Sea.
 
[1] It does seem the Aryans shared common religious beliefs as well as common language.


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Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 31-Oct-2006 at 06:26
Originally posted by gcle2003

Except that I thought that you (you personally not necessarily all Indians) think the movement was out of India rather than into it.
 
It doesn't really matter whether it was a racial migration or a cultural expansion or a religious one[1] or bits of all three, it does seem that the 'Aryans' racially similar or not, expanded outwards in all directions from either north of south of the Black Sea.
 
[1] It does seem the Aryans shared common religious beliefs as well as common language.
 
We don't belive in the theory of outward migration from India. The linguistic similarities noticed are a result of cultural influences.


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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Decebal
Date Posted: 31-Oct-2006 at 09:52

Cultural influences, Vivek? So you're telling us that the cultural influence of India was so strong that people as far away as Ireland forgot their own languages and took up languages derived from Sanskrit? You don't think that this is far-fetched?



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What is history but a fable agreed upon?
Napoleon Bonaparte

Even if you are a minority of one, the truth is the truth.- Mohandas Gandhi



Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2006 at 01:24

No it is not far fetched. Isn't English taking ovcer all over the world. I don't know your nationality, but don't you find words similiar to , from other languages in your language. Did'nt Latin influence the European languages.

Is'nt the American culture taking over as the primary culture across the world ?

 

The Aryan invasion theory was a propoganda devised by the British / Westerners to justifyu theior superiority over the eastern populations & it's a big fallacy. It has already been proved a hypothesis.

 



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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2006 at 07:09
Originally posted by Vivek Sharma

No it is not far fetched. Isn't English taking ovcer all over the world.

 
 
Mostly because the British went all over the world. And anyway, communications are a bit more global today than they were four or five millenia ago.
 
Personally I think the religious traces are more interesting than linguistic/racial ones (in this particular case).
 


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Posted By: Aster Thrax Eupator
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2006 at 07:42
The Aryan invasion theory was a propoganda devised by the British / Westerners to justifyu theior superiority over the eastern populations & it's a big fallacy. It has already been proved a hypothesis.
 
Nothing personal, you certainly seem to be very knowledgeable about the antropology, archaeology and history of your country but I hardly think that's true- there is simply tonnes of evidence to suggest that people from the north called the Aryans invaded India! How about Mondjeno-Djaro (If that's how you spell it). I don't want to get back into the argument that we had earlier, an my response is nothing to do with me being a limey, but i've heard lots of offical sources about Aryan civilization in India. I don't believe, however (unlike the British colonials) that the Aryans had any strong relation to the europeans, but Aryan civilization seems to be very prominently known about (at least over here, anyway) in standard history information


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Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2006 at 07:58
Would you belive if I told you that even the chinese kings were called Arya by Indians ? Even the mongoloid noble people were addressed as Aryas. & fair, blond, nordic people were called Anaryas (not Arya) because they were not noble.
 
It is like saying that England was populated by a race of Sirs.


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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Zagros
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2006 at 10:10
Prior to the Aryanisation from Central Asia, there was a continuum of languages from SE Iran all the way to India.
 
Elamite-Harrapan-Dravidian
 
The Indics supplanted and assimiltated, to a large degree, the sub-continental Dravidians, the Persians, and in Northern Iran the Medeans vrs the remnants of the Hurrians and Kassites, supplanted and assimilated the Elamites and the Sakas supplanted the Harrapans.
 
That's how it happened.


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Posted By: Decebal
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2006 at 10:27

Vivek, I suggest you learn a little bit about general linguistics. Yes, English is important now and serves as a lingua franca. Lots of languages are borrowing from it. But the extent of the borrowing is limited to specialized words related to technology, business and entertainment. One has to look at words that are used all the time, such as mother/father, numbers, verbs like eating, walking, body parts such as head or hand. These are the core words upon which linguists base their assesment upon whether languages are related, because they very seldom are replaced in a language and if one finds languages with these words sharing a root, then those languages are likely related.

Let's look at Latin, as an example. The Romance languages of Europe (French, Spanish, Italian, Romanian, Portuguese, Catalan, Romanche and Provencal) are all descended from it, in the same way that Hindi or Bengali are descended from Sanskrit. Many other European languages have also been influenced by Latin (because it was the language of the Church and of intellectual activity for more than 1000 years), but the extent of the borrowing is limited to outside the core words. Thus, even if English has about 50% of its words derived from Latin (often via French), its core words are Germanic, so it is considered a Germanic language. In English one still says head, not testa, one says hand not mano, one says son not fili, and so on. Whatever the intense radiating power of Latin was upon Germanic languages (and we're talking about 600 years side by side, and then an additional 1000 years of Latin being the language of learning), it still has not managed to modify these core words. So, if 1600 years of intense, very up-close cultural radiation from Latin has still not managed to change the core of Germanic languages, how could Sanskrit change all European languages through cultural radiation at such a distance?

So what I'm trying to say is that cultural radiating power can never fully explain the fact that Indian, Iranian and European languages are related, so that core words are often similar. Something more had to occur, and as far as we know, the only thing that would account for it is a common origin for these languages. Given the very wide spread of these languages, the next conclusion is that a migration and probable conquest must have occured from the original homeland of the Indo-Europeans, for them to have spread over such a huge area. The original homeland could have never been as big as the extent of these languages is now, because languages quickly change, and we wouldn't notice such similarities. Now, this may have been manipulated by 19th century European historians, but it doesn't change the fact that there is no other explanation than a common origin for these languages, and hence there must have been a migration in the past. Whether the Indo-Europeans were conquerors or simply overwhelming migrants is another discussion.

Linguists have analyzed the preserved common words of Indo-European languages relating to geography, animals and plants. The idea is that these words can tell us what the characteristics of the Indo-European original homeland were. To give you an example, if these people had never seen a desert or a leopard, then they wouldn't have a word for it. So by process of elimination, based on these common words, linguists have determined that the original homeland must have been in some area which is mostly plains, is temperate and is near a sea (among other characteristics). Further examination has determined that this homeland must have been either to the north of the Black Sea, somewhere around the Caspian Sea or in Anatolia. This happened to play quite well in the hands of racist historians, because it meant that there was a good likelyhood that the original Indo-Europeans were white. But the fact that these historians were racist does not automatically place the location of that homeland somewhere else, does it now?

 

As far as the "Arya", doesn't that simply mean noble? In Greek as well (another Indo-European language), the word for noble is "arista": hence the word aristocrat in many European languages today.



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What is history but a fable agreed upon?
Napoleon Bonaparte

Even if you are a minority of one, the truth is the truth.- Mohandas Gandhi



Posted By: Decebal
Date Posted: 01-Nov-2006 at 10:47

Here are some sites that show how core words in Indo-European languages are related. Pay attention to which words related to plants and animals are common. One other thing to note is grammatical structure. Just as much as words, commoan grammar rules are a clear indication that languages can be related.

http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/grimm.htm - http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/grimm.htm
http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_counting.htm - http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_counting.htm
http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_animals.htm - http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_animals.htm
http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_plants.htm - http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_plants.htm
http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_sky.htm - http://www.colfa.utsa.edu/drinka/pie/rel_sky.htm

http://www.nvtc.gov/lotw/months/december/IEFamily.html - www.nvtc.gov/lotw/months/december/IEFamily.html
http://www.friesian.com/cognates.htm - http://www.friesian.com/cognates.htm
http://www.lankalibrary.com/books/sinhala3.htm - www.lankalibrary.com/books/sinhala3.htm
http://www.desijournal.com/article.asp?articleid=82 - www.desijournal.com/article.asp?articleid=82
web.cn.edu/kwheeler/IE_Main4_Sanskrit.html
http://www.hinduwebsite.com/general/indoeuro.htm - http://www.hinduwebsite.com/general/indoeuro.htm



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What is history but a fable agreed upon?
Napoleon Bonaparte

Even if you are a minority of one, the truth is the truth.- Mohandas Gandhi



Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 02-Nov-2006 at 05:03
Originally posted by Vivek Sharma

Would you belive if I told you that even the chinese kings were called Arya by Indians ?
 
 
Certainly I would believe you. I just wouldn't see that it was relevant.
 
Even the mongoloid noble people were addressed as Aryas. & fair, blond, nordic people were called Anaryas (not Arya) because they were not noble.
 
It is like saying that England was populated by a race of Sirs.
 
'Lords' would be closer, I guess. But so what? Words can have more than one meaning. 'Rus' used to be Scandinavian, and is probably vaguely with 'rousse' and 'russet'. But Russians certainly aren't Scandinavians, and not many of them have red hair.
 
 


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Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 02-Nov-2006 at 05:27

decebel I agree with most of the reasoning you give, but the problem is that the Indian history or mythology or religion or culture, tradition, folklore  (which is the most extensive, ancient & detailed description of events in the past records everything, even minute details like what a person should eat or wear or how he should walk but does not have any mention of an arya migration into India). Amongst these surprising intricated details it is impossible to belive that somebody could miss out something as great as a migration of the type the AIT makes out to be.

The term arya, arya belief, arya people, their way of living is not missing, it is discussed in great detail but there is no reference to the term Arya as a race or a linguistic group.


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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: gcle2003
Date Posted: 02-Nov-2006 at 05:43
With regard to Decebal's piece, which I would agree with, it's true that subjugated races quite often adopt the language of the conquerors; so do races that have been turned into a minority by migration. So the fact that groups speak a common language (or versions of a common language) doesn't necessarily indicate a racial link.

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Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 02-Nov-2006 at 07:57
The Indian state of Nagaland today has English as the official & unofficial spoken language. After theri conversion to Christianity, they started studying in Missionary schools & have completely forgotten their Tibetan language. All the people here are mongoloid & speak English as their mother tongue.
 
Now if somebody were to look at their literature of linguistics, they would be classified as racially pure migrants from England as their language is not similiar to english. It is English itself.
 
The Andamanese of India are also loosing their language.
 
Many other tribes of India have totally lost their language.
 
I for one am not able to speak in my own language, but am very fluent with others.
 
Linguistic similarity is at bestg an idicator of influence, not mass migration
 
 
 
 


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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Vivek Sharma
Date Posted: 02-Nov-2006 at 08:02
Even conquerors don't effect mass migration most of the times. Theyu get localized over just a few generations. Mughals linked them to mongols, because mongols were great conquerors, they themseves were turko-iranians, who adopted the Iranian customs when they came to india. Within just two generations they became an Indian race. From Akbar onwards, practically all the important mughal kings were born of Indian women. The same is the history of Mongols everywhere else.
 
 
Famines & natural conditions can however bring about such migrations


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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn


Posted By: Joinville
Date Posted: 02-Nov-2006 at 17:07
About Indo-european languages being as widespread as they are:

One current hypothesis latches on to the functional aspect of language. I.e. it's adoption, dropping an older language, can result from a change in subsistance pattern.

The theory is that indoeuropean languages were adopted in Europe from the east as they adopted agriculture. The language was the means of communicating this technology.

The theory has the beauty of offering an explanation why certain European groups stuck to the old languages, like the Basque or the Sami; these people simply lived in environments where agriculture was too impractical, either in mountains or in the deep, arctic north where farming is near impossible anyway.

Like everything about European pre-history its a pretty much unverifiable theory. It's consistent with anthropological observation though. Life-style changes can also result in radical linguistic change.

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One must not insult the future.


Posted By: Khashayarshah
Date Posted: 06-Nov-2006 at 19:12
the government are racist to bahai's, jews, and dont care about history. but the persians did come from aryan civilization.

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Who is the real fool? the man who says what to do, or the man that follows him?


Posted By: Athanasios
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2007 at 17:54
aryan is a kind of a mixed milk and yogourt also...LOL

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Posted By: Bulldog
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2007 at 18:28

I think the problem LaGolf may be having is that some Iranians outside Iran, a small minority among Persian non-Muslim community, they see Islam as terrible, Arabs and Jews as Evil, they think they're Aryan's so this make's them buddies with the white folk they now live with in addition to this White Supremacist Groups keen to exploit every avenue have been trying to feed this propoganda.

However, LaGolf I'd like to point out that this tiny minute group of ignorant people do not represent Iran, they don't even have a movement or voice in Iran, they are nothing to do with Iranians or Iran, don't take them seriously I doubt whether there actually Iranian at all.



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      “What we do for ourselves dies with us. What we do for others and the world remains and is immortal.”
Albert Pine



Posted By: Maziar
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2007 at 19:19
I even never heared any Iranian sees Jews as Evil.


Posted By: TheGame
Date Posted: 23-Jan-2007 at 23:51
Just remember that until the 1970's, Zionism was declared a racist idea by the UN. It was not until after Israel and the US's heavy lobbying that this declaration was revoked.

Guess who the founders and leaders of the neo con movement were? All of them were Zionists, and today, most neo cons are Zionists or Zionist supporters.

The USA does not have a government that cares for the American people, it has a government that cares for zionism.

Being anti zionist is not being anti Jew! Many Iranians, whether secular, or atheist, etc... are mostly against the Israeli government and its policies.

The Israeli government is racist, founded by racists former terrorists in 1948. Yes, terrorists, the founders of Israel in 1948 were all members of the former Jewish terrorists groups in Palestine that attacked British and Arab alike.

Ironic isnt it?

Hitler's Aryan is different than true Aryan. We are of Aryan heritage, but that does not make us anti Jewish, although today we may be against Zionism or Israel's policies.

Why cant Muslims, Jews, and Christians live side by side in one country, which is not solely representative of one of these groups? One nation, three religions, it can happen, the Israeli government is in the way of this, they want a Jewish state for Jews only, no matter how many Palestinians they have to kick out.


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