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1500-1700 European History

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  Quote Help Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: 1500-1700 European History
    Posted: 12-Nov-2005 at 05:37

I got a few questions that will be up for discussion in class and I'd appreciate if any of you could just give me a few pointers in each question.

1. How did the exploration and colonisation of the new world affect America and Africa and the domestic cultures that lived there.

2. How does the Renaissance and the Reformation differ from each other and what do they have in common.

3. Discuss the conditions in the Ottoman Empire and Russia during 1600-1700. Compare the peasants positions, the role of religion and military conditons for exmaple.

4. England had long been a constitutional monarchy where as France kept the absolutism monarchy. Discuss economical, politcal and social processes that was behind this development.

5. Discuss the changes in land owner conditions between 1500-1870 in England, Russia and Sweden.

I'd really appreciate if you could give me any pointers in any of these questions or direct me to any sites where I can read further about the subjects, thanks.



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Maju View Drop Down
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  Quote Maju Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 12-Nov-2005 at 17:32
Originally posted by Help

I got a few questions that will be up for discussion in class and I'd appreciate if any of you could just give me a few pointers in each question.

1. How did the exploration and colonisation of the new world affect America and Africa and the domestic cultures that lived there.


It was a major disrupton, specially for Americans, who saw their countries invaded, exploited and colonized by very superior civilizations (and their diseases). While America was subject to a total transformation to fit the hunger of gold and land of Europeans, Africa became the great producer of slave labor, specially as the Americans got killed by overexplotation and disease (Caribbean region mostly). In few decades most of America became colonial posessions of Spain and Portugal, interrupting the local isolated evolution.

2. How does the Renaissance and the Reformation differ from each other and what do they have in common.

They are both major cultural reforms in Europe and they are relatively contemporary. Yet, while Renaissance is a lacist current (if such name can be used in that period), Reformation is a religious process. Renaissance lived well with the corrupt Popes and princes of Italy, while Reformation was aimed specially against these. Counter-refomation actually pushed the breaks on renaissance and humanism in the Catholic countries, while Protestants, occasionally at least, also burned on the stake some illustrated scientists of the Renaissance, like Servet.

...

4. England had long been a constitutional monarchy where as France kept the absolutism monarchy. Discuss economical, politcal and social processes that was behind this development.


England was a "backward" country: it had not developed a fully formed feudalism and therefore it was also "behind" in the ultimate Modern political developement: absolutism. Obviously we know now that all that would eventually turn in an advantage but at the time it was not so clear.

Obviously the presence of a large class of freemen allowed eventually a fastest economic progress that the feudal regions of Europ (most) would have to catch up with.


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  Quote fastspawn Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-Nov-2005 at 19:42
what level are you studying at, Help?
It would be kind of you to provide the details, because the discussion topics could vary with with the level of understanding.

On 2. Difference and Commonalities of Renaissance and Reformation.

It is my belief that without the Renaissance the Reformation could never occur. As the renaissance was a man-ego Centred age, rather than the pre-renaissance (Low Middle-High Middle) God Centred Age. (As can be evidenced from Artwork, as I am sure you have studied).

As Popes condoned this proceedings, it lowered the populace treshold towards the unquestioning infalibility of the Papacy. (How powerful could they be, if they consider indulge like man.)?

So you have a cheapining of the Papacy, and the realization of the Corruption within it, as increased trade with the Near East brought luxuries and riches to the port cities of Italy, (and thus the Pope.)

Now what you have is a population that believes that Man himself is capable of understanding God, without the need of the Pope, and a Pope that is held sway by wanton greed and his seat bought.

A revolution was bound to occur.

I think a link between the two is found in Erasmus, who though a Catholic in word and praise, was in truth a Lutheran in thinking (OK its an opinion.)

But basically that is my 2-bits. Do tell us what level you are studying in so that we might not embarass ourselves by saying something simple?
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