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Stalingrad or North Africa?

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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Stalingrad or North Africa?
    Posted: 14-May-2009 at 14:56
Originally posted by TheRedBaron

[
 
LOL!
 
What a pile of ill-informed rubbish.
 
The most effective German units always on the Eastern Front from 1941? Really? So the myriad Fallschirmjager Divisions, 1st SS, 2nd SS and various others are not effective?
 
Well. First of all, you need to calm down and read some facts first. Germans always were sending their best to the Eastern Front (though this doesn't relate decisevely to their air and sea units).
 
Strange enough, but you even didn't know that 1st and 2nd SS had spent 75% of their time fighting on the Eastern Front and only less than a year on the Western Front but then again they were transferred to the East were they finished the war.
 
"Rubbish" is only when someone is pretending to know something while in fact what he knows is not much.
 
Originally posted by TheRedBaron

Where would they have opened a second front in Europe on their own?
 
Review the discussion above before asking this question.
 
Originally posted by TheRedBaron

Dieppe proved that British amphibious doctrine, though heading in the right direction, was flawed and needed a great deal more experimentation, not too mention the specialist equipment that was developed for Normandy. Britain also lacked a cohesive airborne froce till 1943, another pre-requisite for a successful landing.
 
In fact, Dieppe by itself proved that the landing is possible. But Dieppe is a very interesting subject that deserves a thread of its own. I just want to note that the only decisive reason behind the failure of Dieppe was that the Germans knew of the operation in advance. There are even theories suggesting that the information about the operation was deliberately leaked to German intelligence.
 
For the same reason, the main success of the operation "Overlord" was due to the success of the intelligence of the Allies. If German knew in advance about the exact location and time of the landing of 1944, there is a very high probability that it would be a failure as well, but that time it was a different story.
 
Originally posted by TheRedBaron

Till 1943/44 the Germans still were able to put considerable air power above Western Europe and the British would not have been able to project air superiority over Europe to protect an invasion.
 
They had enough forces to launch and continue the fighting.
 
Originally posted by TheRedBaron

The British also had a distinct lack of landing craft, these simply would not arrive in the needed numbers till 1943.
 
Provide statistics which would prove that British wouldn't have enough landing craft in 1942 if they would start producing it massively let's say in 1941.
 
Originally posted by TheRedBaron

But the whole point is WHY would they launch a limited landing against occupied Europe if they did not have the resources to procure it and use it as a means to end the war, as was Normandy?
 
You didn't show any evidence that they didn't have such resources. And it doesn't exist.
And WHY, BECAUSE of the same reason they were willing to help their allies in Europe in 1914.
 
Originally posted by TheRedBaron

It would have been a pointless waste of men and material that could be better used elsewhere.
 
I wouldnt let your anti-British sentiment influence your statements so much if I was you.
 
My "anti-British sentiment" ? I don't understand what you're talking about. I didn't blame British for anything, neither did I express any "anti" towards them in this thread. On the contrary, I can repeat again that I complitely understand why Britain didn't want to sacrifise too many of its lifes in Europe before 1944, and that such policy, was, definitely, in the best interests of British people.
 
On the other hand, I don't see any difference between costly and quite meaningless British participation in the battle in France in 1914-1918 and a possible opening of the Second Front in 1942 in Europe. Both were possible, but both also would be too costly. So, the second time Britain made the right decision to protect the lives of its soldiers from another butchery.
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-May-2009 at 15:04
Originally posted by Peteratwar

No Britain did not have the resources to open a SUCCESSFUL limited theatre in Europe, not without abandoning everything else. Where do you suggest they went ? Do you suggest they totally pulled out of North Africa and the Far East ? In any event a limited theatre is next to useless. What is it there for ? What does it achieve ?

North Africa was a theatre which was opened up against the British by the Italians, it wasn't one the British chose to do. The North Africa/Mediterranean was not a minor sideshow that you are claiming.

Main British forces were always in the home islands during the war. The British wouldn't have to abandon anything and I'm not suggesting it, they could just launch an attack from their main base.
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  Quote pikeshot1600 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-May-2009 at 16:09
Sarmat,
 
I don't think your argument as to the ability of Britain to initiate operations on the Continent on their own pre-1943 is convincing.  Most of Britain's better equipped and experienced troops (and the best Commonwealth troops) were in the Middle East, defending Suez and the oil resources, or in India.  The Indian army, while large, was not a mechanized force and could not be relocated anyway due to the defense requirements of the straits (pre 1941) and Burma-India after that.  Britain did not have the numbers to mount what would have been a frontal assault in Europe.
 
The point about lack of materiel to support such an undertaking has already been made by RedBaron. 
 
In 1943, the strategic argument between the US and British staffs (or among the "combined staff" as Churchill viewed it) was that it was to be either Italy (Br.) or France (US) as a continental objective.  Not until 1944 was sufficient amphibious equipment either designed or available for an assault on France.  Churchill got his Mediterranean objective; Germany lost it's Med forward position, which it had never wanted anyway, and German troops rose from about 10 divisions in the south (It.-Balkans) to 30.  Those divisions were not then available in France or in Russia.
 
The main reason this could be done, in addition to American materiel becoming available, was that there were about 1,000,000 well equipped, mostly now experienced Allied soldiers in north Africa.  The resources were there.  Before that the resourcess were not available in Britain.
 
Sarmat, you are avoiding the crux of the basic argument here:
 
Where would they have opened a second front in Europe on their own?  (RedBaron's question)
 
"They had enough forces to launch and continue the fighting."  (Your statement)
 
Please explain.
 
                                     ******************************
As we have already moved beyond Stalingrad vs North Africa, here is a point for consideration:
 
Britain had always understood her vulnerabilities in relation to Continental military operations.  Since the 17th century, Britain had not gone to the Continent except with strong coalition partners.  This made sense as she could usually act in her own interests as a balancing power.  After spring, 1940, there was no balance.  There were no coalition partners.
 
Not until late 1942 was the USSR able to hold it's own in the east (Germany's abandonment of the Caucasus and getting bogged down on the Volga), and really not until 1943 was the US ready to contribute other than at sea and in the industrial sphere.  Then by 1944, the US was calling the strategic shots understanding that it was the far stronger power.  Britain went along, not as a balancer, but as a junior partner, a great power in name only.
 
IMO, the British knew in 1940 that their situation was grim; that their options were minimal.  Barbarossa acted as a relief valve; the entry of the US in the war saved the situation.  The resources to mount direct operations against the Continent were not available; peripheral operations to secure oil and communications were the best that could be done. 
 
         


Edited by pikeshot1600 - 14-May-2009 at 16:12
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  Quote Cryptic Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-May-2009 at 16:38
Originally posted by pikeshot1600

I am not sure I understand the point you guys are making about a "lack of enthusiasm."  What were they supposed to do, invade France on their own because it looked enthusiastic?  
No, they were not. There is a huge difference between reasonable direct confontations stemming from legitimate need and foolish ventures. The following concepts were legitimate and reasonable :
 
-Early acknowledgement that continous campaigns on the peripheries would not decisively defeat the Germans rather, a direct confrontation was needed in France.
-Seriously exploring a 1943 D-Day. The strategically, the luftwaffe was already breaking in 1943. Total air dominace was not an absolute necessity for the invasion and there was no Atlantic wall.
-Raising and using more British combat infantry divisions. Britain relied very heavily on a few proven U.K formations and on Dominion / Colonial troops
-Not cutting desperatly needed aid convoys to Russia following a few hundred deaths. At the time, British convoy defences were constantly improving.
-Transfering real naval power to Indian Ocean / Pacific in early 1944 and actually using it against Japan.
 
All of these concepts were reasonable, realistic and legitimate. They also all involved direct confrontations against vialbe opponents and more casualties. After WWI deaths, however, British society was no longer capable of the same level of enthusiasm for warfare.  I dont blame them.
 
 
 


Edited by Cryptic - 14-May-2009 at 16:48
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  Quote Peteratwar Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-May-2009 at 16:45
Having no enthusiasm for seeing thousands of men slaughtered due to ill-equipped expeditions is not the same thing as British society being no longer capable of the same level of enthusiasm for warfare. The enthusiasm (if anyone is so silly as to have it for warfare) was to see that the enemy was defeated as soon as possible providing the cost was acceptable. The Chiefs of Staff fully understood the requirements which understanding seems to be missing from some of these threads 
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  Quote Cryptic Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-May-2009 at 16:49
Originally posted by Peteratwar

The enthusiasm (if anyone is so silly as to have it for warfare)
Sure, no one has enthusiasm for war. Some societies, at some times, however, were capable of making a very high level of commitment towards a war (WWI Britain). After WWI, British society was not capable of doing this (WWII Britain).
 
 


Edited by Cryptic - 14-May-2009 at 22:38
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-May-2009 at 17:25
Originally posted by pikeshot1600

Sarmat,
 
I don't think your argument as to the ability of Britain to initiate operations on the Continent on their own pre-1943 is convincing.  Most of Britain's better equipped and experienced troops (and the best Commonwealth troops) were in the Middle East, defending Suez and the oil resources, or in India.  The Indian army, while large, was not a mechanized force and could not be relocated anyway due to the defense requirements of the straits (pre 1941) and Burma-India after that.  Britain did not have the numbers to mount what would have been a frontal assault in Europe.
 
The point about lack of materiel to support such an undertaking has already been made by RedBaron. 
 
In 1943, the strategic argument between the US and British staffs (or among the "combined staff" as Churchill viewed it) was that it was to be either Italy (Br.) or France (US) as a continental objective.  Not until 1944 was sufficient amphibious equipment either designed or available for an assault on France. 
 
It wasn't available because nobody seriously started to plan the operation until the middle of 1943. And I already said that it would be available if such preparations would had started in 1941 or sometime in early 1942.
 
  
Originally posted by pikeshot1600

The main reason this could be done, in addition to American materiel becoming available, was that there were about 1,000,000 well equipped, mostly now experienced Allied soldiers in north Africa.  The resources were there.  Before that the resourcess were not available in Britain.
 
The resources were there because they were delivered there from Britain and the US. It would be much easier to deliver or simply keep the resources in the British Isles.
 
Originally posted by pikeshot1600

Sarmat, you are avoiding the crux of the basic argument here:
 
Where would they have opened a second front in Europe on their own?  (RedBaron's question)
 
"They had enough forces to launch and continue the fighting."  (Your statement)
 
 
I'm avoiding nothing. The reason is very simple and obvious i.e. to ease pressure on the Eastern Front and thus help to defeat Germany as soon as possible. For example in 1942 USSR desperately needed such assistance.
 
Moreover, declaration and assurances that the front will be open in 1942, then in 1943 had been repeatedly made several times. But no real actions followed. Not because it was impossible, but because Churchill's policy was to avoid such landing and save British lives from new Sommes and Verduns. 
 
 
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  Quote Al Jassas Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 14-May-2009 at 18:20
Hello to you all
 
About the best units of the wehrmacht. The germans always had the best heer units in the east even after Normandy. It was the SS which is arguably better equipped and manned than the heer that took the largest share of the fighting in Normandy and after. Also in general, the wehrmacht had their best units (both SS and Heer) in the east untill Jan 44 when the SS and some Heer divisions were moved to France and Italy. However to indicate how bad the fighting was, the 1st SS was totally distroyed three times and all were in the 8 month period they spent in France. When the SS divisions were moved east again in Feb. 45, the 1st SS already was a skeleton formation having mo more than 1500 men and almost no tanks (it was a panzer SS division) so were all other SS units.
 
This doesn't mean that the east was easy, a German division was lost every week on average from 41 to Jan 45 there and many divisons were recreated 3 or 4 times over the period of fighting.
 
As for the 2nd front, one major reason why the Brits didn't open one in 42 and 43 is simply the memories of Dunkirk. There was little proof that the French would rise and overthrow the Vichy regime in France. In fact every thing indicated the opposite (most French generals who fought the Germans in 40 were within the Vichy government). The Operation at dieppe failed to make the french rise against the Germans and the operation was met cooly by the French people and the people of occupied europe. With NA near being secured at the time of Dieppe (before the reverse) and because of the reason above it was wiser for the Brits to carry on the war in NA where the Italians showed more opposition to the Nazis and rarely fought seriously than taking the war into europe and suffer a worse disaster.
 
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  Quote warwolf1969 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-May-2009 at 23:07
The reason there was no second front opened up was different for each year.  In 1942 the western allies still expected Russia to collapse under German pressure, so it was not a good idea to open up the second front.  Churchill believed that Russia's resistance was going to give Britain time to prepare for a german invasion.  By '43 the US forces were just arriving.  Churchill pushed for, and got, the Torch landings in Africa then the invasion of Italy.  Even then he was thinking of europe after the war.  He pushed for Italy as a way to get into the balkans before the Russians.  As a result of the '43 invasion any plans for invading france were put on hold until there were enough US forces in Britain to support such a task.
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-May-2009 at 14:57
Yes, exactly, the reasons behind delays with the openning of the Second Front were not the issues of resources and capabilites but rather political considerations.
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  Quote Peteratwar Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-May-2009 at 08:44
Originally posted by Cryptic

Originally posted by Peteratwar

The enthusiasm (if anyone is so silly as to have it for warfare)
Sure, no one has enthusiasm for war. Some societies, at some times, however, were capable of making a very high level of commitment towards a war (WWI Britain). After WWI, British society was not capable of doing this (WWII Britain).
 
 
 
Having lived through those times I would beg rather strongly to differ. On what do you base this hypothesis ?
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  Quote pikeshot1600 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-May-2009 at 22:38
Originally posted by Cryptic

Originally posted by Peteratwar

The enthusiasm (if anyone is so silly as to have it for warfare)
Sure, no one has enthusiasm for war. Some societies, at some times, however, were capable of making a very high level of commitment towards a war (WWI Britain). After WWI, British society was not capable of doing this (WWII Britain).
 
 
 
Along with Peteratwar, I would disagree here.  As noted above, Britain needed coalition partners for any successful Continental strategy.  In WW I, Britain had three major ones - France, Russia and Italy.  In 1940 - 41, she had zero.  Yet, she kept on fighting and holding her own, and survived the Blitz, something not experienced before.
 
In addition, the first war was basically European in scope.  Yes, the Middle East was an important theater, but France was paramount - across the Channel.  In WW II, the war effort was more truly world wide.  Europe; the Middle East; major operations in east Africa; The Indian Ocean; the far East; Burma-India and the Pacific.  This is not to mention the Atlantic and Arctic theaters.
 
In further addition Smile, the war lasted 50% longer than the first one.  That in itself resulted in more financial outlay and drain on resources than in 1914 - 1918.  Britain dealt with it.  She emerged from the war virtually bankrupt (I know gcle disagrees here), but she dealt with it.
 
In one of those Cold War spy movies, I remember a British agent who would have been the right age for WW II saying something like "We were tested as no generation before us had been, and we were not found wanting."  I have to agree with that.  There is no question of Britain's commitment in WW II.
 
   
 
 


Edited by pikeshot1600 - 18-May-2009 at 22:54
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 18-May-2009 at 23:19
Originally posted by pikeshot1600

 
Along with Peteratwar, I would disagree here.  As noted above, Britain needed coalition partners for any successful Continental strategy.  In WW I, Britain had three major ones - France, Russia and Italy.  In 1940 - 41, she had zero.  Yet, she kept on fighting and holding her own, and survived the Blitz, something not experienced before.
 
How could Britain survive that in fact never happened? Germany was never able to land and start Blitzkrieg in the British territory proper. So, what is the point? And about the Blitz bombings is the point that nobody was able to survive such bombings before or what?


Edited by Sarmat - 18-May-2009 at 23:24
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  Quote pikeshot1600 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 19-May-2009 at 00:15
Originally posted by Sarmat

Originally posted by pikeshot1600

 
Along with Peteratwar, I would disagree here.  As noted above, Britain needed coalition partners for any successful Continental strategy.  In WW I, Britain had three major ones - France, Russia and Italy.  In 1940 - 41, she had zero.  Yet, she kept on fighting and holding her own, and survived the Blitz, something not experienced before.
 
How could Britain survive that in fact never happened? Germany was never able to land and start Blitzkrieg in the British territory proper. So, what is the point? And about the Blitz bombings is the point that nobody was able to survive such bombings before or what?
 
Had you really read the entire post, you may have been able to get the point.
 
 
 


Edited by pikeshot1600 - 19-May-2009 at 00:27
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 19-May-2009 at 01:28
I reread your entire post and I'm still not able to understand what you mean. Germans never landed on British soil, and you still didn't clarify a point about bombing.
 
You say, "yet she kept fighting" but was there much choice?  Britain controlled the seas and Germans couldn't seriously hurt her unless they could invade the British Isles. And, in fact, British military power and resources and were largely intact.
 
One would perhaps, could say that "Britain was able to survive" if she managed to defeat the German land operation and fight off the German landing.
 
But in this case, we just see that it were Germans who simply switched their attention from Britain to the East, cause they considered her threat insignificant and not dangerous any more, and they never, in fact, made any serious attempt to invade and conquer Britain.
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  Quote Peteratwar Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 19-May-2009 at 08:44

prior to the Battle of Britain and the ensuing Blitz, no nation had had to endure such sustained and widespread bombing.

Was there a choice, yes Britain could have requested peace, Hitler put out feelers. So yes we kept fighting alone hoping something would turn up. Which of course it did when Hitler invaded Russia and finally Japan attacked the US.

Wven then with the U-Boat war nothing was certain.

Hitler may have thought that Britain was no threat any more. Big mistake. Don't think the rest of his High Command agreed.

No he made no attempt to invade Britain as the Battle of Britain ensured that.

 

 

 

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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-May-2009 at 01:15

I'll just make a point that I think Pikeshot had made above, in WWII Britains committments were much greater than in WWI, in WWI divisions sent to the middle east were those that were pretty much incapable of being used in France. In WWII the British had the whole mid east to garrison (tied down a field army plus) fight against Japan in the Far East, and oh by the way, beat the Germans. In 1914-18, UK fought to victory and was still the worlds most powerful nation, in 39-45 she was finished as a great power.

 
As for enthusiasm, well the British were moving troops from one theatre to another througout the war, the 5th Divison for instance, fought in Burma, in Madagascar, in N Africa, in Italy then in NW Europe. It was pretty damn common for major formations to have fought both the Japanese and the Germans.
 
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-May-2009 at 16:28
 British military effort in WWI both in the Middle East and Europe surpassed that in WWII. Campaigns in Mesopotamia, Syria and Palestine and Galliopoli landing were large operations which claimed more British lives that all the NA campaign of WWII. The same is obviously true about the European theater.
 
It's WWI that is called "The Great War" in Britain, not WWII; it says it all.
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-May-2009 at 20:14
It was called the Great War in Britain in right after the War, as was true the world over until 1939.
 
Incidentally WWII in the Far East saw the greatest defeats in British military history, Singapore, the biggest retreat; Burma 1942, the worst single single defeat in British Naval history since 1781; the destruction of Force Z. ANd Britain WON the war in the Far East.
 
British losses per division and per regiment in WWII were higher than in WWI, 200,000 dead in the campaign of 44-45 alone, in just 10 months of fighting they suffered as many as many losses as they did in 2 years of fighting on the Western Front (for what its worth, British losses in WWI were 600,000 dead, the remaining 300,000 were empire losses).
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  Quote Sarmat Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 20-May-2009 at 20:51
The whole point is that the only real front close to the scale of British participation in WWI was the fighting on the Second Front in Western Europe that lasted roughly for 10 month starting from June 6, 1944 till the fall of Germany.
 
I wouldn't argue that by intensity it surpassed British military effort in some aspect during 1914-1918. However, during WWII it was only 10 months in 1944-45 of very intensive fighting, while in 1014-1918 it was the full four years of very intensive bloody fighting.
 
And it was the Somme that brough the single heaviest day of casualties in British military history not something else.


Edited by Sarmat - 20-May-2009 at 20:56
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