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The Pope: A Discussion of the Roman Primacy

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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: The Pope: A Discussion of the Roman Primacy
    Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 13:21

Just a word or two on the matter of Peter's tenure at Rome.

I could not hope to keep up with the archaeological and textual evidence you guys are bringing to bear in the conversation over whether or not Peter was ever actually at Rome. I can, however, attempt to present the authentic tradition of the Church regarding this matter.
 
All of the holy Fathers are in agreement when it comes to the subject of Peter playing a leading role in the missionary work in Rome; I cannot think of a single one who opposed this view. There has been some modern criticism, even from some Orthodox scholars. Most of it, however, is derived from late 19th century flirtations with radical--and often anti-Christian--forms of the spiritually and intellectually bankrupt historical-critical method. For me, this closes the case.
 
Even so, the point is really moot. After all, the Petrine heritage of the Roman bishops was not a primary basis for their increasing claims to authority until the fifth century. When Irenaeus refers to the prestige of the Roman Church, he links it to the fact that in Rome the faith of Christians everywhere is reflected. In the fourth century, the Council of Constantinople was very clear that Rome's special status was due to her position as the capital of the oikoumene.
 
One more thing...
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

Irenaeus lived in a period when the doctrine about the church as an institution was not yet developped. For him, there were only local communities of Christians, called churches (see how begin the fragment quoted by me). When he says "organized", he refers to the making of the structures of the community and when he says "founded" he refers to the apparition of the first Christians there.
 
That is at best misleading; at worst it is simply untrue. The episcopal system of Irenaeus' time was very similar to that of the later Ecumenical Era, and if you read Adversus Haereses (specifically Bks. 3 and 4) you will note that he has a well developed concept of what it means to be part of a universal, institutional Church. While his writings are often quoted out of context and distorted to support papal universal claims, one cannot read them without recognizing his awareness of the fact that he was a member of a divine institution, founded by Christ, and guided by the Holy Spirit.
 
-Akolouthos


Edited by Akolouthos - 15-Sep-2007 at 15:19
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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 14:37
All of the holy Fathers are in agreement when it comes to the subject of Peter playing a leading role in the missionary work in Rome; I cannot think of a single one who opposed this view


The Fathers were grounding their believe on the tradition of the Church, that Peter was at Rome.

Excepting the earliest Fathers, the ones contemporary with the apostles, who seems to have a different opinion.

If Peter and Paul would died at Rome Clement would have
mentioned that. Actualy, in the passage from the Epistle to Corinthians, he just give an example with the two pillars of the Church. This is the only reason for Clement speaks about them together.




Even so, the point is really moot. After all, the Petrine heritage of the Roman bishops was not a primary basis for their increasing claims to authority until the fifth century. When Irenaeus refers to the prestige of the Roman Church, he links it to the fact that in Rome the faith of Christians everywhere is reflected. In the third century, the Council of Constantinople is very clear that Rome's special status was due to her position as the capital of the oikoumene.


The so-called Petrine heritage was the first basis of Rome bishops' claim for their supremacy.

In 3rd century Constantinople didn't yet existed but you are true: the way in which Rome's bishops started to be seen as having a sort of special honour (without any executive atributes) derived from that Rome was the center of the empire. This is why the honourific title "primus inter pares" was atributed. But the Rome's clerics and Christians always stated, since the second half of 2nd century on, that their special characyter is because Peter was the founder of their church.



Anyway, the claim that Peter was different from the other apostles is, I think, not grounded. This theory is based only on the interpretation of the versets from Mattew 18 and in this cCatholics (also in the Eastern church this theory existed before 1054) seems to behave like the Protestants, founding their principles on Bible, not on the living tradition of the Church which were transmited directly, unwriten, from the time of the apostles.




The passage from Mattew 18 has corespondence in Luke:

18 Once when Jesus was praying in solitude, and the disciples were with him, he asked them, "Who do the crowds say that I am?"

19 They said in reply, "John the Baptist; others, Elijah; still others, 'One of the ancient prophets has arisen.'"

20 Then he said to them, "But who do you say that I am?" Peter said in reply, "The Messiah of God."

21 He rebuked them and directed them not to tell this to anyone.




But is missing the part with the change of apostle's name.



A vast theological literature exists on this changement of name.

Actualy, the change of name was having the semnification of a new life. In the book of Revelation is sayed that the ones who will overcome will receive a new name.

Changing the names of all apostles would have created confussion, so he changed only the name of Peter, the oldest of them.




And even if Peter would hve been a super-apostle, I see not reason for this to be transmited to the bishopry he founded, I mean to Antioch.

Edited by Menumorut - 15-Sep-2007 at 14:47

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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 15:16
Originally posted by Menumorut

The so-called Petrine heritage was the primary basis of Rome bishops' claim for their supremacy. You can read in the passage of Irenaeus I gived.
 
Quite incorrect, actually. Your interpretation of the passage from Ireneaus is flawed in two ways. First, as you will notice, it mentions both Peter and Paul; this mention is simply an account of the glorious apostolic foundation of the Roman Church. Secondly, you're reading the passage, ironically enough, as the Roman Catholics do. As I have noted elsewhere, this oft-cited quote is much better known than the rest of Adversus Haereses Bk. 3, Chs. 3 and 4, which provide the context for it. In lieu of reposting a large amount of material in this thread, I will refer you to the link below, which will take you to a discussion in which I explained the aformentioned passage in the proper context.
 
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

In 3rd century Constantinople didn't yet existed but you are true: the way in which Rome's bishops started to be seen as having a sort of special honour (without any executive atributes) derived from that Rome was the center of the empire.
 
Obviously I should be a bit more careful when I type. Yes, yes; the Council of Constantinople was held in 381 A.D., which would actually be the fourth century. My apologies for the typo; I will correct it once I have finished this post.
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

But the Rome's clerics and Christians always stated, since the second half of 2nd century on, that their special estate is because Peter was the founder of their church.
 
They had, indeed, always cited the roles of both Peter and Paul in the foundation of the Roman Church as historical factors which enhance the dignity of that church. They had not, however, cited these historical factors as justifications for papal authority. They certainly hadn't done so "since the second half of the 2nd century," for we do not even hear papal absolutist claims until the middle of the third.
 
I was referring to the middle of the fourth century because this was the first time that the role of Peter in founding the Church at Rome was cited as the primary justification behind papal claims to extra-jurisdictional primacy. As the Petrine argument developed, the role of Paul in the founding of the Roman Church was gradually deemphasized.
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

Anyway, the claim that Peter was different from the other apostles is a huge mistification. This theory is grounded only on the interpretation of the versets from Mattew 18 and in this Catholic church (also in the Eastern church this theory existed too before 1054) seems to behave like the Protestants, founding their principles on Bible, not on the living tradition of the Church which existed from the time of the apostles.
 
Actually, it is based on much, much more than that; Peter's special status among the Apostles is amply demonstrated many, many times throughout the Scriptures (and I believe it is Matthew 16 to which you intended to refer). This has always been accepted as a part of the living tradition of the Church. No Christian, Orthodox, Protestant, or Catholic can dispute the fact that Peter possessed a leadership role in the early Church. The dispute is over the nature of that leadership role. The Eastern Church still holds to the Biblical and traditional assertion of Peter's leadership role among the Apostles.
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

And even if Peter would hve been a super-apostle, I see not reason for this to be transmited to the bishopry he founded, I mean to Antioch.
 
That is a question now, isn't it? Wink Still, I think we have adequately established--at least from the perspective of Christian tradition--that Peter was, in fact, involved in the foundation of the Roman Church, so you may now refer the same question to Rome after Antioch.
 
-Akolouthos
 
 


Edited by Akolouthos - 15-Sep-2007 at 15:25
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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 15:55
Actually, it is based on much, much more than that; Peter's special status among the Apostles is amply demonstrated many, many times throughout the Scriptures (and I believe it is Matthew 16 to which you intended to refer). This has always been accepted as a part of the living tradition of the Church. No Christian, Orthodox, Protestant, or Catholic can dispute the fact that Peter possessed a leadership role in the early Church. The dispute is over the nature of that leadership role. The Eastern Church still holds to the Biblical and traditional assertion of Peter's leadership role among the Apostles.


Which is exactly this special status? John says nothing about such a status but says that him (John) was the favorite disciple. The others evangelists too doesn't say that Peter would have a special status.

Paul doesn't say about Peter, but about Peter, James and John that are pillars of the Church.


Peter was the oldest and for that he was the most respected and as in many traditional communities was considered somehow a leader. And in his presence, for the sake of modesty, the other apostles were more moderated in actions, so this is why Peter appears as subject in more of the events.


This is the reason too for Jesus chosen Peter to change his name: he was the symbol of the apostles. Is not a mysterious difference between him and the others apostles or other humans. Christianism is not a religion of mysteries, every principle has a motivation which can be explained, described.

You should agree that Catholic Church doesn't have a clear doctrine about Peter and Mary. Mary is considered the greatest Saint but Peter is seen somehow like a man with super-human attributes.




That is a question now, isn't it? Still, I think we have adequately established--at least from the perspective of Christian tradition--that Peter was, in fact, involved in the foundation of the Roman Church, so you may now refer the same question to Rome after Antioch.


I don't agree. I disagree even that Peter was ever at Rome. If you mantain this, please tell an aprovimativ date at which Peter was at Rome.


About Antioch:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Patriarchs_of_Antioch



Or you are saying that the presence of Peter at Rome is a doctrinar, not historical point? If yes, I answer that a theory implying a historical event cann't be a doctrinar point. Christianism is not a set of irational rules, it is meant to lead the men to the truth.


Anyway, remember that at the Council in Jerusalem Paul sayed that was established that Peter would preach among the Circumcised and this was considered the work of the Holy Ghost in them.


And please, offer a reason for which he would go to Rome, as the center of Christianism was the East Orient* until late.



_____________
*The vast majority of Christians were living in the East. Even at Rome, Christianism was seen as an Eastern phenomenon even in 3rd century. There is a Saint (don't remember the name), a man from Rome who wished to see the martyrs, fleed to the Minor Asia and died there as a martyr. In 3rd century, I think 90% of the Christians were in East.




Edited by Menumorut - 15-Sep-2007 at 16:38

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  Quote MengTzu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 16:29

Originally posted by Menumorut

Is not about the absence of reference of Clement about Peter. Is about how Clement speaks about Peter, in comparison with how he speaks about Paul. You say that I am uselessly repeating points but I see is necessary:


I understood your point.  My point is that just because Clemente didnt talk about it here, it doesnt mean that he didnt know about it or talked about it in another instance.  The lack of mentioning is certainly probative, but not conclusive.  There are many reasons that a person would refer to someone but not go into the same great detail as he would another person, and not knowing is only one possible reason, not the only possible reason.  For example, one possibility is that Clemente could have felt the greater need to describe Paul if the audience are already more familiar with Peter than with Paul.


The Council at Jerusalem is in the 15th chapter of Acts and you speak about what is in the 10th chapter. It was a solemn decision. It is considered the first Council of the Church, even not a general (Ecumenic) council.

 

Some ecclesial decisions are made for specific circumstances.  The separate missions to Gentiles and Jews appear to be more of a organizational arrangement, a division of tasks.  The division doesnt appear to be an inflexible dogma after all, it concerns the arrangement of the works of the apostles, which appears to be different from unchangeable dogma of faith.  Alternatively, as I noted, though this is a weaker point, there were Jews in Rome.  Peter could have evangelized to them.

 

The decisions of the Councils were and are the laws of the Church.

 

The laws of the Church, unlike the Law of Moses and the Gospel, are not said to be unchangeable.


You are very right and the favorite disciple of Jesus was John, not Peter.

 

What you said here doesn't really address my point.  The point is not whether Peter was the favorite, but why Jesus spoke to him as the representative of the other apostles.  What makes you think that Jesus chose Peter as the representative of the apostles based on age? 

 
But as you see in the gospels, Peter is always treated with a special atitude.

Let's look just at Mattew 16:

13 When Jesus went into the region of Caesarea Philippi he asked his disciples, "Who do people say that the Son of Man is?"

14 They replied, "Some say John the Baptist, 10 others Elijah, still others Jeremiah or one of the prophets."

15 He said to them, "But who do you say that I am?"
16 Simon Peter said in reply, "You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God."


We see how Jesus ask all the apostles what people are saying, they answer together, but when Jesus ask what is the believe of the apostles, Peter answer in the name of them.

 

What you said here still doesn't address my point.  What makes you think that he was treated specially because of his age?  Furthermore, even if he was the oldest, his being the oldest doesnt tell us exactly how old he actually was.

I can't find again that reference (maybe I have read on another website) but look a paragraph from this webpage:

The Vatican and others have calculated through all existing evidence that Peter lived to be around 80 and 82 years, and that he died around the years of 62 or 64 A.D.
Go to the third paragraph starting from the end of the webpage.

 

I hope you can discuss these evidence.  Since I dont really believe in Catholicism, Im not going to accept something as true simply because the Vatican and others have said so.


I didn't sayed that the Church hasn't structures but that the doctrine about Church-institution was not yet born in the conscience of the Christians.

 

You have not shown evidence that church-institution was not yet born in the consciousness of the Christians.  Further, the New Testament already discusses some institutional structures of the early church, like ranks of the servants, overseers, and elders.

You sayed that "planted" and "organized" can both refer to the organizing, not to the apparition of the first believers in that town. Your assertion is wrong because is not logical that a structure can first be implemented and than organized. If is not organized, is not a structure.

 

You misread me.  I did not say that planting and organizing can both refer to organizing.  In fact, what I said was the opposite: that planting and watering can both be seen as a part of planting, depending on whether one uses the word planting in a strict sense or in a broad sense.  In other words, planting can be seen, in a stricter sense, as the initial beginning, but can also be seen, in a broader sense, as including both the initial beginning and the early stages of organizing.  In a broad sense, one can say that the initial founder as well as other early organizers together participated in planting.  These words such as planting and watering are simply metaphorical, there are not definite, restrictive ways to use them.

Also, Irenaeus speaking about two etaps of the proces of founding the eclesial system in Roma's church would necesitate an elaborate doctrine,about the Church as institution, which missed at the time.

 

We have seen such ranks and positions already in the New Testament.  Whether you call the New Testament elaborate doctrine, it is very authoritative to the Christians.  Even if you dont consider the New Testament elaborate doctrine, there is no need for elaboration any simple, non-elaborate institutionalized church structure is different from a collective of believers.

Regarding your discussion about archeology:

Interesting discussion about archeology!  Since I'm not a student of archeology myself, I don't feel qualified to discuss my opinions on archeology.  I will leave it to you and the archeologists who believe that Peter went to Rome to debate which side has stronger evidence.  Looking at the archeological findings alone: there appear to be evidence on both sides of the argument, so I dont think I would draw my own conclusion about the archeological factual findings specifically.  In any event, I again suggest that you read "The Bones of St. Peter", written by John Evangelist Walsh, which presents the archeological evidence supporting Peter's presence and martyrdom in Rome.

My interest was only to point out the illogical and invalid inferences that you have made thus far about the evidence you have presented, and so far, you have made quite a lot of illogical and invalid inferences.  While I can't comment on the archeological findings, I will continue to point out the illogical and invalid inferences made by you and others.  And so far as I'm capable, I would even point out illogical and invalid inferences any of you make regarding the archeological findings themselves.



Edited by MengTzu - 15-Sep-2007 at 17:40


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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 16:29
Originally posted by Menumorut

Which is exactly this special status? John says nothing about such a status but says that him (John) was the favorite disciple. The others evangelists too doesn't say that peter would have a special status.

Paul doesn't say about Peter, but about Peter, James and John.


Peter was the oldest and for that he was the most respected and as in many traditional communities was considered somehow a leader.

This is the reason for Jesus chosen Peter to change his name. Is not a mysterious difference between him and the others apostles. Christianism is not a religion of mysteries, every principle has a motivation which can be explained, described.
 
As I said, and as has been repeatedly noted, both in this thread and others, the role is one of leadership. This is amply attested to--as even you have noted--in the Gospels, and in the book of Acts. His role as leader was based on more than his age; it was based on his faith. The Scripture (Matthew 16)  is very simple and straightforward.
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

I don't agree. I disagree even that Peter was ever at Rome. If you mantain this, please tell an aprovimativ date at which peter was at Rome.
 
My dear fellow, it isn't as if the historical narrative is a secret. Tradition holds that he was martyred during the reign of Nero in 67 A.D. (or, less commonly, 64 A.D.). The exact date of his arrival in Rome is unknown, and while it could have been as early as 50 A.D., most scholars would place it much later (with many placing it shortly before his martyrdom).
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

Or you are saying that the presence of Peter at Rome is a doctrinar, not historical point? If yes, I answer that a theory implying a historical event cann't be a doctrinar point. Christianism is not a set of irational rules, it is meant to lead the men to the truth.
 
If you are unwilling to admit that the overwhelming testimony of the Fathers (including the historians among them), and the complete lack of any opposing tradition makes it remarkably unlikely that Peter died anywhere except Rome, then I fail to see how you ever manage to accept anything at all. The conclusion that Peter spent time in Rome is not the product of a set of "irrational rules" ; rather it is the truth to which men have been led by their reason. I would refer you to the Eusebius' Church History in the Nicene and Post Nicene Fathers set, Ser. 2, Vol. 1. In the footnotes for Bk. 2, Chs. 14 and 25, the authors conduct a detailed analysis of the historical record of Peter's presence in Rome.
 
At this point, Menumorut, I think we would all benefit if you took the time to explain your religious background, as everyone else in the thread has done.
 
-Akolouthos


Edited by Akolouthos - 15-Sep-2007 at 16:35
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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 18:17
I understood your point. My point is that just because Clemente didnt talk about it here, it doesnt mean that he didnt know about it or talked about it in another instance. The lack of mentioning is certainly probative, but not conclusive. There are many reasons that a person would refer to someone but not go into the same great detail as he would another person, and not knowing is only one possible reason, not the only possible reason. For example, one possibility is that Clemente could have felt the greater need to describe Paul if the audience are already more familiar with Peter than with Paul.


You have to chose: or Clement wished to emphasize on Paul but then why he mention the both apostles and not just Paul, or you say that he wished to present the two in equal way but lacked details about Peter.



Some ecclesial decisions are made for specific circumstances. The separate missions to Gentiles and Jews appear to be more of a organizational arrangement, a division of tasks. The division doesnt appear to be an inflexible dogma after all, it concerns the arrangement of the works of the apostles, which appears to be different from unchangeable dogma of faith. Alternatively, as I noted, though this is a weaker point, there were Jews in Rome. Peter could have evangelized to them.


When at the council was decided that Peter to be the apostles of the Circumcised and Paul of the Gentiles, it was a rather geographical arrangement: Peter remained in the area of the Jewish concentration: Palestine, Syria and Paul obtained the rest of the territories. Paul was commonly preaching to the Jewish communities of the diaspora even before the council in Jerusalem, see Acts 14.

I remember you that in Galatians Paul says that Peter and the other two (James and John) recognized that the One who worked in them was God:


...when they saw that I had been entrusted with the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter to the circumcised, for the one who worked in Peter for an apostolate to the circumcised worked also in me for the Gentiles...

So, I think is not such a flexible thing. I don't consider that at that time apostles were having an understanding about what a council is, but the way Paul speaks shows that it was a decision considered to be of God, not of the humans.

Also I remember (or inform) you that the Near East was the area where were most of the Christians at that time (and later too) and I still wait to give a reason for which Peter would leave Near Orient and come to Rome. And a possible date of such a visit, in your opinion.




What you said here doesn't really address my point. The point is not whether Peter was the favorite, but why Jesus spoke to him as the representative of the other apostles. What makes you think that Jesus chose Peter as the representative of the apostles based on age?


It was not chosed by Jesus for this, it was the acceptance among the apostles. Peter was speaking in the name of others. If a younger one would have done this, it would have been considered a daring.



Furthermore, even if he was the oldest, his being the oldest doesnt tell us exactly how old he actually was.


You maybe have the image of a group of young apostles. Is a clichee. Maybe the apreciation of Peter's age was made by explaining his behaviour from psychanalitic and sociologic points of view. He is daring and is not apostrophated for this. At an age of 20, 30 or 40, a behaviour like his would be considered daring, but if he was 50 his daring was considered correct.



ou have not shown evidence that church-institution was not yet born in the consciousness of the Christians. Further, the New Testament already discusses some institutional structures of the early church, like ranks of the servants, overseers, and elders.


You have to understand that people absorb information and form principles hardly, because they progress starting from nothing. Jesus several times apostrophated his audience for lack of understanding. Or you can look how hard the apostles progressed in undertanding the sense of Jesus' mission. A sophisticated concept like that of church-institution appeared only after the First ecumenical council, when the Church started to be seen not as the summe of the Christians but as a divine-human institution.

The evolution of the Christian church principles is reflected in the theological literature, which in the first centuries is simple and then became more and more elaborated, even its esence remained fundamentaly the same.



In any event, I again suggest that you read "The Bones of St. Peter", written by John Evangelist Walsh, which presents the archeological evidence supporting Peter's presence and martyrdom in Rome.


I prefer to read what several scholars (or other informed people) are saying, even there are small remarsk found on internet pages.
I don't see how a single person could be more authoritative than several.

Also, from some description of this Walsh, I'm afraid is a kind of "popularising" historian (even more: in a romanticised way!). I prefer the ones who are addressing to specialists.





As I said, and as has been repeatedly noted, both in this thread and others, the role is one of leadership. This is amply attested to--as even you have noted--in the Gospels, and in the book of Acts. His role as leader was based on more than his age; it was based on his faith. The Scripture (Matthew 16) is very simple and straightforward.


Peter didn't act as a leader. He didn't ordered something. It was a natural atitude to consider him the representant of the apostles. Or you sugest that Peter was invested with a kind of "he is different" among the apostles?



Could you explain in simple words what is at Matthew 16?

Is the founding of some Mysteries? Is the Church founded on Peter? If yes, why Paul says that the Church is founded on the apostles, as in Ephesians 2, 19-22?


19 Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;

20 And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;

21 In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:

22 In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.




Where is the special role of Peter here?




Tradition holds that he was martyred during the reign of Nero in 67 A.D. (or, less commonly, 64 A.D.). The exact date of his arrival in Rome is unknown, and while it could have been as early as 50 A.D., most scholars would place it much later (with many placing it shortly before his martyrdom).


Tradition is a social phenomenon in which each generation take the stories from the precedent one.

So, you say that the tradition says that Peter was at Rome but the scholars doesn't know when he came. So this tradition is an oral transmitting proces, which may have fake origins and is hard to believe it escaped to enrichments.

Speaking about scholars, you may know that they think that the less rich in details, the older a source is, when comparing sources about the same thing.

And the way that the story of Peter at Rome is enriched in each century from the 1st to the 3rd is conclusive for this general statement in historiographical science.



If you are unwilling to admit that the overwhelming testimony of the Fathers (including the historians among them), and the complete lack of any opposing tradition makes it remarkably unlikely that Peter died anywhere except Rome, then I fail to see how you ever manage to accept anything at all.


I didn't contradicted you, I agree that is a general consense. I sayed that this consense has not any authority because each generation grounded on the convinctions and documents of the anterior ones.



Do you know that Rome haven't a bishop until few decades of the second century?


Ofcourse, if Peter would have been at Rome is possbile that he not invested a bishop, but then why he should have left his jurisdiction and come to Rome?


See this material about the fact that Rome haven't bishop until few decades of the second century:


While there were bishops in the first century in Jerusalem, and at the latest, by the early 2nd century in Asia Minor, this was not the case in Rome.

When Ignatius of Antioch wrote eight epistles just prior to his martyrdom, he mentioned bishops in many areas--the bishop of Smyrna (Polycarp) mentioned the most. His style was to address his letters to the leaders of the various areas, and in areas that had bishops, he mentioned them. However, unlike most of his letters, his Epistle to the Romans never mentions a bishop in Rome by either name nor title.
...
We must conclude that the New Testament provides no basis for the notion that before the apostles died, they ordained one man for each of the churches they founded..."Was there a Bishop of Rome in the First Century?"...the available evidence indicates that the church in Rome was led by a college of presbyters, rather than by a single bishop, for at least several decades of the second century (Sullivan F.A. From Apostles to Bishops: the development of the episcopacy in the early church. Newman Press, Mahwah (NJ), 2001, p. 80,221-222).


http://www.cogwriter.com/clement.htm



Paul didn't invested a bishop at Rome perhaps due to the heterogenousness of the Christian communities, but with his authority (as one who was the direct disciple of Jesus) Peter would have done this.

The fact that Rome didn't had a bishop even few decades in the second century, is a proof that Peter wasn't at Rome.






At this point, Menumorut, I think we would all benefit if you took the time to explain your religious background, as everyone else in the thread has done.


I'm Christian Orthodox.



Edited by Menumorut - 15-Sep-2007 at 18:54

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  Quote MengTzu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 15-Sep-2007 at 19:08
Originally posted by Menumorut


Observe that Peter is described first, but with lack of details. You have to chose: or Clement wished to emphasize on Paul but then why he mention the both apostles and not just Paul, or you say that he wished to present the two in equal way but lacked details about Peter.
 
I don't have to choose from these two possibilities, because there is a third one that I already proposed: that the audience already knew the details of Peter.

When at the council was decided that Peter to be the apostles of the Circumcised and Paul of the Gentiles, it was a rather geographical arrangement
 
That's not the point.  The point is that you haven't shown that this arrangement is inflexible and permanent.

I remember you that in Galatians Paul says that Peter and the other two (James and John) recognized that the One who worked in them was God:


...when they saw that I had been entrusted with the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter to the circumcised, for the one who worked in Peter for an apostolate to the circumcised worked also in me for the Gentiles...

So, I think is not such a flexible thing.
 
The Scriptures you quoted does not show that the arrangement is inflexible and permanent.
 
Also I remember (or inform) you that the Near East was the area where were most of the Christians at that time (and later too) and I still wait to give a reason for which Peter would leave Near Orient and come to Rome.
 
Missionaries tend to go to places where there are few believers in order to find more converts.

And a possible date of such a visit, in your opinion.
 
No clue.  Like I said, I'm not here to argue that Peter was in Rome.  I'm here simply to point out any illogical and invalid inferences you've made.

It was not chosed by Jesus for this, it was the acceptance among the apostles. Peter was speaking in the name of others. If a younger one would have done this, it would have been considered a daring.
 
This is pure speculation.  Where does Scriptures say Peter was chosen by consensus of the group and not by Jesus?  I haven't studied the Bible for quite a long time, so my memory might be failing me, but I don't remember Scriptures ever saying that Peter was chosen by the apostles as their head.  On the other hand, Jesus clearly treated him in a special way and as representative of the others.  Where does Scriptures say that such a selection is based on age?  Didn't Paul say that Timothy shouldn't be despised by others because of his young age?  It is pure speculation that the respresentative was chosen by the apostles based solely on age.

You maybe have the image of a group of young apostles. Is a clichee. Maybe the apreciation of Peter's age was made by explaining his behaviour from psychanalitic and sociologic points of view. He is daring and is not apostrophated for this. At an age of 20, 30 or 40, a behaviour like his would be considered daring, but if he was 50 his daring was considered correct.
 
No, my point is not based on whether the apostles were young.  It doens't matter what my mental image of them is, because I am not arguing that they are young.  Rather, you are the one who is trying to prove that Peter was old, so you are the one who needs to prove the apostles' age to show that Peter was at the old age you insist that he was at.  You should know by now that I have no stance in this -- I don't believe that they were young or old.  It is you who are suggesting that Peter was old, so you need to show that he was old.  My mental image of their age is absolutely irrelevant here.  You still haven't provided proof that, even if Peter was the oldest, then his age would be what you suggest it to be.
 
Speaking of daring: his apparently reckless behavior (like cutting someone's ear) tends to show youth more than elderliness.

You have to understand that people absorb information and form principles hardly, because they progress starting from nothing. Jesus several times apostrophated his audience for lack of understanding. Or you can look how hard the apostles progressed in undertanding the sense of Jesus' mission. A sophisticated concept like that of church-institution appeared only after the First ecumenical council, when the Church started to be seen not as the summe of the Christians but as a divine-human institution.
 
But we are only talking about simple church structure here.  Even the simplest structure is different from a collective of believers.  The New Testament already has some form of church-structures, and it is absurd to think that Irenaeus wasn't aware of them.

I prefer to read what several scholars (or other informed people) are saying, even there are small remarsk found on internet pages.
I don't see how a single person could be more authoritative than several.
 
Just because I only named him, it doesn't mean he is the only person in the camp that supports Peter's presence in Rome.  There are many archeologists who support the "Peter was in Rome" argument, and Walsh is only one of them.  It's absurd to avoid reading him just because I suggested him without expressly mentioning the others -- with the power of google, you should have the ability to find the others without my help.  It is also absurd for you to think that I'm suggesting that he and he alone is to be pit against the other scholars who don't support "Peter was in Rome."  Again, as I said, there are many archeologists who support the belief that "Peter was in Rome", and Walsh is only one of them.  In addition, one book contains many references -- even just by reading Walsh book might lead you to find references to numerous other scholars, much better than a handful of small remarks you find online.


Edited by MengTzu - 15-Sep-2007 at 19:20


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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Sep-2007 at 07:57
I don't have to choose from these two possibilities, because there is a third one that I already proposed: that the audience already knew the details of Peter.


The epistle of Clement is not with an informational purpose, it gives examples of the malice of envy. The examples are first from the Old Testament and then from the   recent history of the Church.

Why you say that the audience (the Corinthians) were knowing the details of Peter? Why these details haven't arrived to us, as arrived the ones about Paul?





The Scriptures you quoted does not show that the arrangement is inflexible and permanent.


To change arrangement would mean to consider that God's plans are changing and this is contrary to the beliefs of the apostles.




Missionaries tend to go to places where there are few believers in order to find more converts.


Not all the apostles were having the task of converting by journeys. John lived at Ephesus, Peter lived more than 15 years at Antioch. We see from Scriptures that Peter has not made converting journeys, he was moving in the same space, between Palestine and Antioch.





1. I haven't studied the Bible for quite a long time, so my memory might be failing me, but I don't remember Scriptures ever saying that Peter was chosen by the apostles as their head.

2. On the other hand, Jesus clearly treated him in a special way and as representative of the others.

3. Where does Scriptures say that such a selection is based on age? Didn't Paul say that Timothy shouldn't be despised by others because of his young age? It is pure speculation that the respresentative was chosen by the apostles based solely on age.


1. I didn't say it was chosen. It was a spontanous behaviour of the apostles, like in a family with many children, were the oldest is respected and obeyed in a measure.

2. Why do you say Jesus treated Peter in a special way? which was this special way?

3. I didn't speaked about a special arrangemen among the apostles but about the common way East Orient people were behaving socialy.





Rather, you are the one who is trying to prove that Peter was old, so you are the one who needs to prove the apostles' age to show that Peter was at the old age you insist that he was at.


I don't try to prove. I have met this asertion about Peter's age in some webpages. Is the common believe of the exegets. you may know that in visual represetations, Peter is presented aged and gray-haired, while the other apostles are younger.



Speaking of daring: his apparently reckless behavior (like cutting someone's ear) tends to show youth more than elderliness.


This reckless was not spontanous but demonstrative, deliberated.




There are many archeologists who support the "Peter was in Rome" argument, and Walsh is only one of them.


Is Walsh archaeologist?

The archaeologists are not divides in the ones who support and the ones who don't support the theory of Peter being at Rome.

Their activity consists in excavating sites, analysing the discoveries, publish them, comment on them.
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  Quote The_Jackal_God Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Sep-2007 at 12:20
it would seem otherwise, that the apostles did have the ability to communicate with whomever they met - Peter was at the Roman Cornelius' home, Philip explained scriptures to an Ethiopian - that is your mere assumption that the apostles could only speak in tongues on one occasion, and that goes against the tradition of the Pentecost - what, did the Holy Spirit take off after that one event?

second, can you prove that the apostolic writings we have today are the only writings that the first Christians had around in the beginning of the Church? it could be that we are missing texts mentioning Peter in Rome, hence why what you are arguing against was painfully obvious to them.

also, like the Churches of Antioch and Alexandria would allow Rome a seat of honor at the Councils if Peter didn't die in Rome, like they didn't have an interest in the truth, or were too dumb to figure it out...

sounds like hubris when you dismiss out of hand the intelligence of the ancients.  
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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Sep-2007 at 14:02

1. it would seem otherwise, that the apostles did have the ability to communicate with whomever they met - Peter was at the Roman Cornelius' home, Philip explained scriptures to an Ethiopian - that is your mere assumption that the apostles could only speak in tongues on one occasion, and that goes against the tradition of the Pentecost - what, did the Holy Spirit take off after that one event?

2. second, can you prove that the apostolic writings we have today are the only writings that the first Christians had around in the beginning of the Church? it could be that we are missing texts mentioning Peter in Rome, hence why what you are arguing against was painfully obvious to them.

3. also, like the Churches of Antioch and Alexandria would allow Rome a seat of honor at the Councils if Peter didn't die in Rome, like they didn't have an interest in the truth, or were too dumb to figure it out...

4. sounds like hubris when you dismiss out of hand the intelligence of the ancients.




1. I never heard that the gift of speaking in tongues is permanent.

Cornelius would speak Aramaic, ofcourse, the Ethiopian was knowing Greek or Hebrew because he was reading the Judaic Scriptures.

I think speaking in tongues was a gift manifested only in some ocassions, like the propheting too, for example, or the making of miracles.

The gifts of the Holy Ghosts are not ireversible gived to people, on the contrary, in Orthodoxy is a rich theology about that any quality of someone is a gift from God and could be taken back. This due to the fact that God is Persons, has free will, not something authomatic.


Anyway, the tradition is that St. Mark was the translator of Peter at Rome.


2. I'm sure that existed much more than this.
But is hard to believe that from the tradition preserved at Rome and Corinth vanished the parts about Peter and remained the ones about Paul. The Acts of Apostles are ending saying that Paul remained for two years at Rome (this was in 61-63). Nothing about Peter.

For the Paul journey in Rome we have several sources: The Acts of Apostles, the epistles writen by Paul from Rome, the epistle of Clement.


Is hard to believe what you say, that for the contemporaries were obvious the thing about Peter, wihtout these obvious things to be put somewhere in writen.


3. The tradition that Peter was at Rome was general in 3-4th centuries and later. This wasn't the the reason for which Rome's bishop obtained the honourific "primus inter pares", but stopped the posibility that the other churches to rise this claim. And the missionary work of Peter at Antiochia was not well known to the generations of Christians from 3-4th century, as probably they were not having sources for this presence. Even today, this presence and activity is presumed as the most acceptable variant, but is not sure.

The death of Peter should took place during Neronian persecution. It was executed by crucifixion (this is the sense of the prophecy in John 28) in Jerusalem and buried there. With the destruction of this city in 70 AD and the disparition of the Christian community here, the tradition about Peter's death remained an oral transmitted phenomenon, which weakened and after two generations started to be replaced by the rumour that Peter died at Rome.



4. I dont know about which ancients you speak.
The early Christians were groups of people among who legends apeared freqeuently, spreaded, enriched, became truth. There are tons of such untrue traditions.

For example, is enough to compare the Martyric Acts (which are Roman cancelary documents, presenting correct the events) with the Lives of the Saints which are the product of oral traditions and transcribers' "contributions".



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  Quote MengTzu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Sep-2007 at 15:21
Originally posted by Menumorut

The epistle of Clement is not with an informational purpose, it gives examples of the malice of envy. The examples are first from the Old Testament and then from the   recent history of the Church.
 
Actually, examples of Peter and Paul were specifically to show that they were heroic in the face of jealous persecution.  In any event, whether it was about malice of envy, or heroic suffering, my point remains the same: lack of detail does not necessarily mean lack of knowledge.
Why you say that the audience (the Corinthians) were knowing the details of Peter? Why these details haven't arrived to us, as arrived the ones about Paul?
 
You missed my point.  My point is that "lack of knowledge" is not the only possibility for lack of mentioning, which you alleged.  Whether the Corinthians in fact knew is not my point: the possibility that they knew more than suffices to demonstrate my point.

To change arrangement would mean to consider that God's plans are changing and this is contrary to the beliefs of the apostles.
 
No, the apostles certainly believed that God's plan could change in some aspects.  Remember the dream of Peter in which God declared food that was previous thought unclean to be clean.  Some believe that this is the fulfillment of the Law and not its change, but regardless of how one sees this, the point is that even such a fulfillment entails a change in some aspects (e.g. from unclean to clean), and the apostles certainly recognized that fact.  Paul's letters are filled with such discussions.  Such matters as task division is not nearly as fundamental as the eternal laws of God about cleanliness of animals.  If unclean animals can be declared clean, such arrangement of task division certainly does not have to be permanent.
 
In addition, there were Jews in Rome that Peter could administer to.  Finally, a more realistic assessment of the early Christian communities is that the Gentiles and Jews could not forever be in separation.  Eventually, the few Jews who accepted Christianity became fully integrated with the Gentiles (the distinction between Gentile Christians and Jewish Christians was eventually lost -- those who insisted on keeping the Law of Moses strictly were considered heretic.)  The merging of the separate missions was inevitable.

Not all the apostles were having the task of converting by journeys. John lived at Ephesus, Peter lived more than 15 years at Antioch. We see from Scriptures that Peter has not made converting journeys, he was moving in the same space, between Palestine and Antioch.
 
Still no proof that these are permanent arrangements.

1. I didn't say it was chosen. It was a spontanous behaviour of the apostles, like in a family with many children, were the oldest is respected and obeyed in a measure.
 
Pure speculation, as I said already.  There is no indication that Peter's role was the result of a spontaneous, familial setting.

2. Why do you say Jesus treated Peter in a special way? which was this special way?
 
You yourself already stated more than once what this "special way" was -- that Jesus spoke to Peter as though spoking to all of them, treating him as their representative.  It does not matter why Jesus chose to do so -- my point is that age is not the only possibility.
 
As I said before, all of your arguments is based on elimination of possibilities, including this one.  Your point is that age is the only possibility for such arrangement, but there are numerous possible criteria.  I don't need to prove which possibie is in fact the criterion used -- the simple fact that there are other possibilities other than age suffices to demonstrate my argument.
 
3. I didn't speaked about a special arrangemen among the apostles but about the common way East Orient people were behaving socialy.
 
Your reasoning operates on a groundless assumption that this particular arrangement resulted from the "common way" of East Orient culture.  Again, there is no indication that this particular arrangement was a spontaneous, cultural effect. 

This reckless was not spontanous but demonstrative, deliberated.
 
In any event, we can't conclusively estimate a person's age by a few singular, extraordinary events.  Many people act in ways we don't expect them to based on their age and other characteristics.  I pointed out about his recklessness not to conclusively prove his age, but to show precisely that his behavior cannot conclusively prove his age.

Is Walsh archaeologist?

The archaeologists are not divides in the ones who support and the ones who don't support the theory of Peter being at Rome.

Their activity consists in excavating sites, analysing the discoveries, publish them, comment on them.
 
This is all the more why you have no reason to avoid reading Walsh.  If the archeologists are not divided into camps, then reading any archeological writings can only add to your objective knowledge.  Walsh is a distinguished historian, and whether or not Walsh himself is an archeologist, his books might have enough references to the works of archeologists to make it more worthwhile to read than finding short remarks here and there on the internet.  Being arbitrarily selective about your sources can only undermine the objectivity of your argument.


Edited by MengTzu - 16-Sep-2007 at 16:18


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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Sep-2007 at 17:08
In any event, whether it was about malice of envy, or heroic suffering, my point remains the same: lack of detail does not necessarily mean lack of knowledge.



Depends of context. If is a retoric reference, like in this case, normal would be Clement to refer equaly to the two.




No, the apostles certainly believed that God's plan could change in some aspects. Remember the dream of Peter in which God declared food that was previous thought unclean to be clean.


The way Peter was thinking before that dream was his Judaic belief. The moment of that dream is important for the history of Christianity because it marks the separation of the Judaic religion.

So, it was a debarasement of the old and "not valid" doctrine.

As for what was decided at Jerusalem, it was considered to be the wish of God of the New Testament, so a change of their convinction on that decision would occur if they would change the doctrine, which didn't happened.



Such matters as task division is not nearly as fundamental as the eternal laws of God about cleanliness of animals.


I repeat: a change in that division would occur only if they considered that they received a sign of God that that arrangement should be changed. They were not acting from their initiative, there are several examples for this, including what Paul says about the meeting at Jerusalem.

So, they could change the arrangement only if they would considered that God changes his mind, and this seem little possible.



In addition, there were Jews in Rome that Peter could administer to.



I answered at this: it was not an ethnic but geographical division at the council in Jerusalem. Paul were going usualy to the sinagogues before and after the council. Peter too were converting Gentiles, wee see what Paul says about Peter with the ocassion of the meeting at Jerusalem, that Peter was eating with the Gentiles.



Pure speculation, as I said already. There is no indication that Peter's role was the result of a spontaneous, familial setting.


There is not indication for everything in Bible. Some things you should presume.

About the age of Peter, the text of Jesus' prophecy is interesting:

I tell you the truth, when you were younger you dressed yourself and went where you wanted; but when you are old you will stretch out your hands, and someone else will dress you and lead you where you do not want to go."



You yourself already stated more than once what this "special way" was -- that Jesus spoke to Peter as though spoking to all of them, treating him as their representative.


I sayed that only about the event from Matthew 16.

Peter was not an exception, sometime Jesus is addressing to Philip as to all the apostles:

Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'?




As I said before, all of your arguments is based on elimination of possibilities, including this one. Your point is that age is the only possibility for such arrangement, but there are numerous possible criteria.


I don't state something. Just offering my opinion about what I consider the most acceptable explication.



Again, there is no indication that this particular arrangement was a spontaneous, cultural effect.


Try to see the ensamble picture. If you took, for example, each verse of Bible separately, you'll get to strange things.




This is all the more why you have no reason to avoid reading Walsh. If the archeologists are not divided into camps, then reading any archeological writings can only add to your objective knowledge. Walsh is a distinguished historian, and whether or not Walsh himself is an archeologist, his books might have enough references to the works of archeologists to make it more worthwhile to read than finding short remarks here and there on the internet. Being arbitrarily selective about your sources can only undermine the objectivity of your argument.


I live in Romania were there are not such books, nor in the bookshops or in the public libraries. If I would live somewhere were I could obtain, I would prefer read specialised academic works, because they are usualy lacking interpretations, as I presume is the case with Walsh. Also, an archaeologist has a incomparable more vast knowledge of the specific of material cultures than a general historian as Walsh. And the idea of "making accesible to large masses" scientifical concepts is erroneous, it generates a wrong understanding of the matters.

Edited by Menumorut - 16-Sep-2007 at 17:13
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  Quote MengTzu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 16-Sep-2007 at 19:16
Originally posted by Menumorut

Depends of context. If is a retoric reference, like in this case, normal would be Clement to refer equaly to the two.
 
That context doesn't change anything.  Again, the point is that "lack of knowledge" is not the only possibility.  The context of Clement's statement does not show that "lack of knowledge" is the only possible reason that he omitted the details of Peter's life.  It's possible that he expected the audience to know; it's possible that Peter's life was more widely circulated than particular details of Paul's experience.
 
I have a new observation: after reading Clement' words, I've found that his description of Paul doesn't refer to any particular incidents beyond what we can generally infer from Scriptures.  His captivity, fleeing, and being stoned are all found in the Bible -- Paul himself wrote in great details of his sufferings.  The only detail in Clement's letter probably not in the Bible is the exact number of times he was imprisoned, but this hardly proves the depth of his knowledge about Paul.  I had previously not examined the passage more closely and simply assumed you were right in the inference you drew from it, but now I realized your inference is incorrect: his recounting of Paul's life is only longer than Peter's life, but is so general that it doens't show that he has more insight about Paul's life than Peter's.
 
That is not to say that he has little insight into both apostles' lives.  My point is only to show that your logic is incorrect here: your argument was that since he described Paul's life in greater details than Peter's, and since he would discuss both with the same details if he could, his lack of mentioning of details of Peter's experience shows that he was unfamiliar with Peter's life.  But this comparison that you have made is flawed because a closer look at the passage shows that his description of Paul's life is very general, just longer.  Again, what he wrote doesn't necessarily mean what he knew -- he could have known great details about both saints, but if he had intended only to give a brief description of each apostle, as is now clear from the passage, there is no reason to think that the brevity of his description of Peter indicates lack of knowledge.
The point here is that your original contention is problematic, and I'm only attacking that point specifically: that the details he gave about Paul were significantly more detailed than about Peter and thus shows that he has greater knowledge about Paul.  However, the details he gave about Paul was so general, most of which can be found in Scriptures, that this comparison doesn't prove what your intend to prove.

The way Peter was thinking before that dream was his Judaic belief. The moment of that dream is important for the history of Christianity because it marks the separation of the Judaic religion.
 
Not only is it important, it shows a clear change in as aspect of God's plan.  The Christians recognized the Law of Moses.  They recognized it to be part of God's plan.  Animals that were unclean and now were clean shows that some aspect of God's plan has changed.

So, it was a debarasement of the old and "not valid" doctrine.
 
The Christians recognized the "Old Law" was valid.  Jesus said as much, that not a dot of the Law should be taken out unti fulfillment.  If his fulfillment of the Law brought about changes to some aspects of God's plan, then it is clear that the apostles understood that some aspects of God's plan could change.

I repeat: a change in that division would occur only if they considered that they received a sign of God that that arrangement should be changed. They were not acting from their initiative, there are several examples for this, including what Paul says about the meeting at Jerusalem.
 
Your argument is based on an elimination of possibility -- namely, your point that God's plan COULD NOT change in the minds of the apostles.  But here you already admitted that change of some aspects of it in some circumstances is possible (such as if they believed they have recieved a sign for such change.)  Whether such a sign in fact occurred does not affect my point: my point is that by your own admission, you have stated that they believed change of some aspects is possible.
 
Even if you're just arguing that it is unlikely but no impossible, you have shown no proof of that this lack of likelihood.  There is no need to have always a formal meeting to decide the current status of God's plan.  Peter believed that God can pronounce something as significantly as declaring unclean animals clean to him personally, and he accepted the message without the need of a council.  The geographical arrangement of missions is so practical a matter, and so different from fundamental questions of doctrines, morals, and pracitces, that there is very little reason to think that the aposetles would only believe God to have new plans for their mission strategies if there is something as prominent as the Jerusalem Council.
There is not indication for everything in Bible. Some things you should presume.
 
But your assumption here is purely speculative.  If there's no indication that one possibility is greater than the other, then the question is entirely moot, and we should leave it at that, rather than to read into the Bible and impose any presumption.

Peter was not an exception, sometime Jesus is addressing to Philip as to all the apostles:
 
Remember you said previously that Peter is the oldest because he represents the apostles.  Now you're saying that he doesn't have this unique role of representing the apostles, so you're now admitting that you have less reason to think he is the oldest.  You're now contradicting what you said earlier.  When you were trying to prove that Peter was the oldest, you gave this example: "We see how Jesus ask all the apostles what people are saying, they answer together, but when Jesus ask what is the believe of the apostles, Peter answer in the name of them."
 
Now you're saying that other apostles, like Philip, can fill this representative role.  Hence what you're saying now contradicts the evidence that you previously presented.  In other words, you are now contradicting your previous argument that "Peter is the oldest because he is the representative of the others." 
 
I live in Romania were there are not such books, nor in the bookshops or in the public libraries. If I would live somewhere were I could obtain, I would prefer read specialised academic works, because they are usualy lacking interpretations, as I presume is the case with Walsh. Also, an archaeologist has a incomparable more vast knowledge of the specific of material cultures than a general historian as Walsh. And the idea of "making accesible to large masses" scientifical concepts is erroneous, it generates a wrong understanding of the matters.
 
I trust you to be have the ability to filter fact findings from interpretations.  What you're doing now is purposefully avoiding potential facts that can contribute to the discussion, and such avoidance is arbitrarily selective and undermines the objectivity of your argument.


Edited by MengTzu - 16-Sep-2007 at 19:44


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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 17-Sep-2007 at 03:54

1. It's possible that he expected the audience to know; it's possible that Peter's life was more widely circulated than particular details of Paul's experience.


2. The only detail in Clement's letter probably not in the Bible is the exact number of times he was imprisoned, but this hardly proves the depth of his knowledge about Paul.   

3. But this comparison that you have made is flawed because a closer look at the passage shows that his description of Paul's life is very general, just longer.



1. Let's put again the passage:

Peter, through unrighteous envy, endured not one or two, but numerous labours, and when he had finally suffered martyrdom, departed to the place of glory due to him. Owing to envy, Paul also obtained the reward of patient endurance, after being seven times thrown into captivity, compelled to flee, and stoned. After preaching both in the east and west, he gained the illustrious reputation due to his faith, having taught righteousness to the whole world, and come to the extreme limit of the west, and suffered martyrdom under the prefects. Thus was he removed from the world, and went into the holy place, having proved himself a striking example of patience.

I think the difference between how he refers to each one is great. And I think that is not acceptable to think that Peter died at Rome and Clement gives not details.


There are these variants:

a. Peter died in Near East and Paul died in the extreme West

b. Both died at Rome

c. Peter died in Near East and Paul died at Rome.

d. Peter died at Rome and Paul in extreme West



Variant a. is matching the best Clement's description. Variant b. is contradicted by the facts that he make alusion to where Paul died, but doesn't make the same for Peter. If they both would died in the same place, such a differentiation would not have made.
Variant c. is also possible.
Variant d. has a problem with the word "finally". As was not characteristic for Peter to journey, coming at Rome and dying would be mentioned both as a finality, not just his death.


2. That detail is very signifiant. Another one is that he says Paul died under prefects. Bible says nothing about Paul's death. And also the mentioning of Paul going to the extreme west is found only at Clement. But all these are normal, as is sure that Paul lived for more than two years at Rome, see the end of Acts of Apostles.


3. Is longer both also gives details. Three details that are not in Bible.




Not only is it important, it shows a clear change in as aspect of God's plan. The Christians recognized the Law of Moses. They recognized it to be part of God's plan. Animals that were unclean and now were clean shows that some aspect of God's plan has changed.


No, God's plans never changed. In the epistle of James is sayed "Every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of the heavenly lights, who does not change like shifting shadows."

It was a stepped revelation of God to mankind. The Mosaic Law was a prefiguration of the thrue Law. This was planned by God before the centuries.

Apostles understood this only after Peter's dream. Actualy, it was oficially established at the council in Jerusalem that the Gentiles would be accepted too, because the apostles initialy believed that only the Jews are called for the salvation.

So, the acceptance of Gentiles was not because God changed his mind.




Jesus said as much, that not a dot of the Law should be taken out unti fulfillment. If his fulfillment of the Law brought about changes to some aspects of God's plan, then it is clear that the apostles understood that some aspects of God's plan could change.


Jesus sayed that about the prophecies of the Olt testament, not about fulfiling the rituals of the Mosaic law. Because He broken that religious precets, curing people in the Sabbath etc.

Your second phrase is in contraiction with the way apostles were thinking. A God changing his mind and plans was the oposite of the way Apostles believed and teached.





1. Your argument is based on an elimination of possibility -- namely, your point that God's plan COULD NOT change in the minds of the apostles. But here you already admitted that change of some aspects of it in some circumstances is possible (such as if they believed they have recieved a sign for such change.) Whether such a sign in fact occurred does not affect my point: my point is that by your own admission, you have stated that they believed change of some aspects is possible.


2. There is no need to have always a formal meeting to decide the current status of God's plan. Peter believed that God can pronounce something as significantly as declaring unclean animals clean to him personally, and he accepted the message without the need of a council.



1. If a vision in which God would asked a change of one of his previous indications would occured, the apostles would get such a belief, that God is changing his plans.

But this is missing from the Bible and from the belief of Christians in all the times.

There are passages in the Old Testament, like the one with Jonas and the condemnation of Ninive by God (followed by his change of mind) but it have to be seen as an educative manifestation, God knowing the reaction his acts will generate.

The conception that God is changing his plans is totaly contrary to Christian belief.



So, it was not any change at the council of Jerusalem. Apostles passed from some principles which were prejudices, to the right understanding of God's plans.



2. The understanding of the apostles evolved gradual and their principles of activity too.
It was not a declaration of God and it was not about animals. It was a revelation of what God always thinked (I remember that the Christian God is personal) and Peter understood that his anterior belief was wrong.

The Mosaic Law was symbolic. The choice of Jews and their guidance by the Mosaic Law has had the purpose of preparing the humanity for the embodiment of Jesus. It was not the true Law of God, because the humankind could not understand the truth in its initialy estate. The thousand and more years of Mosaic Law prepared the humankind for the revelation of a personal God in Jesus.




Remember you said previously that Peter is the oldest because he represents the apostles. Now you're saying that he doesn't have this unique role of representing the apostles, so you're now admitting that you have less reason to think he is the oldest. You're now contradicting what you said earlier. When you were trying to prove that Peter was the oldest, you gave this example: "We see how Jesus ask all the apostles what people are saying, they answer together, but when Jesus ask what is the believe of the apostles, Peter answer in the name of them."


There were not rules, just a natural way of behaviour. Peter often was speaking in the name of Apostles because he was considered somehow their representant, being the oldest. But it was not a rule.

The discussion with Philip started from an intervention of Philip. But the discussion from Matthew 16 started from Jesus ask to all of the apostles.

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  Quote MengTzu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 17-Sep-2007 at 13:45

I think the difference between how he refers to each one is great. And I think that is not acceptable to think that Peter died at Rome and Clement gives not details.

Your comparison about their lives is irrelevant because your comparison Clement's knowledge about the two saints' deaths, not details about their lives.  Details about their lives prior to their deaths are irrelevant to the comparison (its possible that Clement met Paul earlier on and only met Peter near Peters death)  So lets focus on his knowledge about their deaths.  "Went to the extreme west of the empire and suffered martyrdom under prefects" is hardly sign of having more personal, eye-witness knowledge.  Again, the lack of details about both saints' deaths does not necessarily show lack of knowledge -- if he did not intend to go into details, but only to mention the heroic examples of martyrdom, he needed not describe in details.  The point is that your conclusion about the comparison is faulty because the comparison does not necessarily show that Clement knew more about Paul's death than about Peter's death.

An example of information that would show personal knowledge is if Clement discussed the details of when and where, the instruments of execution, words that Paul uttered before death, etc.

Thus, the passage did not describe in details the deaths of both Peter and Paul.  This either means he did not know, or that he did not intend to describe the details.  My point is not to show whether he knew.  Rather, my point is only to show that your comparison did not necessarily show that he knew more about Paul's death than of Peter's death.

 

The additional details are so general that they do not show superior personal knowledge.  Again, my point is not whether Clement in fact knew, but whether the comparison between his knowledge of Peters death and of Pauls death reveals greater personal knowledge of one or the other.

No, God's plans never changed. In the epistle of James is sayed "Every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of the heavenly lights, who does not change like shifting shadows."

 

Gods Mind is not the same as series of stages of implementation of his plan.  Under the Biblical view, Gods Mind doesnt change, but his plan is implemented through a series of stages.  More about this below.

It was a stepped revelation of God to mankind. The Mosaic Law was a prefiguration of the thrue Law. This was planned by God before the centuries.

 

In the Biblical view, God can plan ahead of time that a person should go to place A and then go to place B.  It doens't mean that God has changed his Mind.  Rather, God already has this entire plan before it was implemented.  He already knew that in the year 2000, he would send a person to place A, and later in the year 2001, he would send a person to place B.  God has already planned all of this out before they are implemented.  I did not say that God changed his Mind and created new plans as the plans were implemented.  Everything in the "plan of salvation" described in the Bible has been implemented through a progression of stages.  These stages do not involve changes in God's Mind; rather, they involve the changes of the situations that people experience through.  There was a time when certain animals could not be eaten.  There was later a time these animals are revealed to be clean.  These changes are within God's plan.  None of this means that God changed his Mind.  It doens't mean that God changed his plan as time went.  Rather, he already planned this progression of stages ahead of time.  Thus, just because God intends a person to go to place A in 2000, it doesn't mean he intends him to stay there permanently.

 

God didnt reveal his plan all at once.  If God always revealed his plan all at once, then the Christians wouldn't need two testaments.  It's obvious that even prefigurement is not the same as full, express revelation.  Hence, what makes you think that Peter would know from God the plan for his entire life mission?

 

 

So, the acceptance of Gentiles was not because God changed his mind.

 

I agree, because the point is not whether God changed his Mind.  The point is whether the apostles learned more of God's plan over time, and they certainly did.  Peter previously did not know that God intended salvation for Gentiles, and he later did.  Revelations, whether public or not, have been made over time.

Your second phrase is in contraiction with the way apostles were thinking. A God changing his mind and plans was the oposite of the way Apostles believed and teached.

 

You completely misunderstood my point, and perhaps it was because did not state my point clearly.  My point was not whether the apostles believed that God changed his Mind.  My point was, rather, that they did not believe God to intend every arrangement to be permanent.  Assuming that the Gospel is all true, then God already knew that unclean animals are actually clean, and that the Mosaic Law was only for a time.  The Bible says that God already planned everything out and didn't change his mind, but it doesn't mean that the state of the world under his plan is static.  It is precisely his plan that certain things are fitting for one time and other things are fitting for another time.

Again, you've continued to misinterpret my point, though probably through no fault of yours, as I do blame myself for not explaining my point clearly enough.  My point is not that the apostles believed God changed his mind.  Rather, the Bible says that God already planned everything ahead, but his plan is carried out through a series of stages.  Under Bibilcal descriptions, these stages are not changes in his Mind, but are changes that God already planned out from eternity.

 
The bottomline is that you insist without proof that God intended Peter's mission to be permanent.  God does not change his Mind, but God can make a plan that is carried out through stages.  In the Biblical view, God's plan indeed is carried through a series of stages.  Fulfillment precisely shows such progression of stages.  It is obvious that God often intends one arrangement for one stage and a different arrangement for a later stage.
 
Note to Jewish readers of this thread: I recognize that the Jews subscribe to a different view from Christians.  When I refer to the "Biblical view" in this post, I am referring to the Christian Biblical view that includes both the Old Testament and the New Testament.  The Jews do not believe, as Christians do, that the Old Testament is a prefigurement of the New, and they dod not believe God's plan is implemented through fulfillments of the Mosaic Law.  This is irrelevant to our discussion, of course, because the apostles are Christians and, according to the New Testament accounts of the apostles, they believe in this fulfillment.  (E.g., Peter believed that in the New Law, unclean animals are clean.)
 
 
This doesn't change the fact that you have undermined or perhaps contradicted a point you made previously.  Your point that Peter was the oldest relied on the evidence that he was the representative of the apostles, and then all of a sudden you said that Philip also had an instance of representing the apostles.

 

 



Edited by MengTzu - 17-Sep-2007 at 14:47


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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 17-Sep-2007 at 14:35
Unfortunately, I do not possess the ability to keep up with the conversation here--honestly, do you guys ever sleep? LOL
 
Still, in lieu of addressing anything specifically, I will raise a couple of general objections to things I have read above. I apologize for not quoting, but as I said, I have little time.
 
First, as to the accordance of a place of honor to the Roman bishops at the Councils of the ancient Church, mentioned by The Jackal God:
 
The councils are very clear that Rome is accorded her place of honor and her prerogatives as a result of her status as the capital of the oikoumene; the fact that Peter died in Rome--which he did--was not used as a justification for universal claims until the middle of the fifth century, when it represented the chief objection of the papal legates to the 28th canon of Chalcedon.
 
Secondly, as to the matter of whether or not there were bishops in ancient Rome, the question of Peter's leadership role, and the presence of Peter at Rome, raised by Menumorut:
 
Although historical evidence does indeed indicate that the primitive Roman Church was governed by a council of presbyters, this does not exclude the possibility of the presence of a bishop. It is altogether likely that, though the bishops had less authority in the primitive Roman Church than their counterparts in other areas, they nevertheless presided in love over the assemblage of priests.
 
Peter's leadership role is outlined clearly in the Matthean passage where Christ speaks of "the keys of the kingdom of heaven," which represent a special authority given to the Apostle Peter. Peter's leadership role consists of being a sort of spokesperson for the Apostles, and a catalyst around which consensus can be formed. While we may be sure that his particular commission does not involve him being granted authority over the apostles--for such authority was never exercised; indeed, quite the opposite is seen from the Scriptures--we cannot minimize his role in the Early Church.
 
Though the other Apostles are given the power to bind and loose, they never received "the keys." This much has never been disputed, even in the Orthodox Church. We Orthodox do, however, point out the fact that there is no evidence that "special charisms" were passed down from the individual Apostles to their particular Churches--a point which represents the key to the Petrine claim. Ephesus, for instance, did not become the "Church which Jesus Loved," any more than the Church in India became the "Doubting Church."
 
As for the scholarship surrounding the study of Peter's tenure at Rome, I would refer you again to that passage I suggested earlier from the Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers set. Though it does not delve into great detail, it presents a fairly good outline, and it is generally written from a fairly Protestant point of view, so you can be assured that you will not imbibe any Roman bias. Anyway, the key to the whole argument is that there is not a single conflicting tradition, upon which to base the overthrow of that which has always been piously held by the Church, both in the East and in the West: Peter was martyred in Rome.
 
-Akolouthos


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  Quote Menumorut Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 17-Sep-2007 at 16:18

1. "Went to the extreme west of the empire and suffered martyrdom under prefects" is hardly sign of having more personal, eye-witness knowledge.

2. Again, the lack of details about both saints' deaths does not necessarily show lack of knowledge -- if he did not intend to go into details, but only to mention the heroic examples of martyrdom, he needed not describe in details.


3.The point is that your comparison is irrelevant because it does not show that Clement knew more about Paul's death than about Peter's death.



1. "Went to the extreme West" is either the result of a journey of Paul to Spain about which Clement has heard, or the result of reading the Epistle to Romans (15: 24, 28). This could remained just an intention of the apostle.

"Suffered martyrdom under prefects" is a sign that Clement was knowing how and where Paul died. I think that this refers to Paul's death at Rome, because of the plural prefects, which seems to indicate a more complex administrative aparatus concentrated in one geographical point.





2. Then why he gives details about Paul?


I think is good to read the passage in the context of the whole epistle:

http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/1clement-roberts.html


In this epistle is an interesting passage:

Take up the epistle of the blessed Apostle Paul. What did he write to you at the time when the Gospel first began to be preached? Truly, under the inspiration of the Spirit, he wrote to you concerning himself, and Cephas, and Apollos, because even then parties had been formed among you. (chapter 47)

Actualy, in the first epistle to Corinthians Paul says:

4 Whenever someone says, "I belong to Paul," and another, "I belong to Apollos," are you not merely human?

5 What is Apollos, after all, and what is Paul? Ministers through whom you became believers, just as the Lord assigned each one.

6 I planted, Apollos watered, but God caused the growth.



This confussion made by Clement is very clear to be the source of the belief among Corinthians that Peter was among them.

We know that the Corinthians were often reading Clement's epistle and in time appeared the confussion that Peter was at Corinth.

Then, ~170 Dionysius of Corinth is proudly writing to Romans:

You also by this instruction have mingled together the Romans and Corinthians who are the planting of Peter and Paul. For they both came to our Corinth and planted us, and taught alike; and alike going to Italy and teaching there, were martyred at the same time.




3. Again and again: why he mention a detail about Paul's death and not about Peter's? This could be explained only by:
-that he had lack of knowledge about Peter's death
-he had met Paul and he was more impressed by the personality of Paul
-both of the above

Because in the same Chapter 15 is
Through envy and jealousy, the greatest and most righteous pillars [of the Church] have been persecuted and put to death.

They both constitute a ingle subject and the logic of rethoric is that both should be presented equaly.





My point was not whether the apostles believed that God changed his Mind. My point was, rather, that they did not believe God to intend every arrangement to be permanent. Assuming that the Gospel is all true, then God already knew that


Apostles were doing only what they considered is Holy Ghost working in them, nothing else. They were not guiding their acts with some principles but permanently by what they considered to be the divine inspiration.

From how Paul speaks about the decision at Jerusalem wee see that is a solemn thing.

That the Holy Ghost could change what was arranged then would generate confussion, even everything would have been planed by God before the centuries. It would introduced the belief of a God which is not as majestuous as he is.


You have failed to provide a proof that "being oldest" is the standard by which Peter became the representative.


As the principles of Christ were that the humility is the supreme virtue and that one should be the servant and behave like the last among the others, the only criterion by which one of the apostles could act as a representative of the others remains the age difference.




Your point that Peter was the oldest relied on the evidence that he was the representative of the apostles, and then all of a sudden you said that Philip also had an instance of representing the apostles.


I repeat that was not something established among them, just a behaviour generated by decency and the value of morality.

About Philip: I speaked about two different things:

1. How Peter was talking in the name of apostles
2. How Jesus addressed not only to Peter but also to other apostles as that one is representing all.



Although historical evidence does indeed indicate that the primitive Roman Church was governed by a council of presbyters, this does not exclude the possibility of the presence of a bishop. It is altogether likely that, though the bishops had less authority in the primitive Roman Church than their counterparts in other areas, they nevertheless presided in love over the assemblage of priests.


The fact that Clement was writing to the Corinthians in the name of the church in Rome (without mentioning his name) could be explained only he was considered the representant of Rome's church. If a bishop existed, he would not leave this to a priest, as Clement was.


Actualy, what Irenaeus says about the bishops of Rome until him is phantastic: he numbers symbolicaly twelve bishops of Rome from Peter to his time. The sixth is called Sixtus:
http://www.ancientpapacy.org/articles/succession1.htm

From this writing (which may have been invented by him for polemic use) has started all the tradition about the pretended bishops of Rome.




Though the other Apostles are given the power to bind and loose, they never received "the keys." This much has never been disputed, even in the Orthodox Church.


The power was promised then (remarks the future of the verb at Matthew 16) to the apostles (not only to Peter) and was gived after the Ressurection:

22. When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost.

23. Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them: and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained.
(John 20)

There is not any difference between the gift promised at Matthew 16 and what the apostles received after Ressurection.

And there is not any theology about "Peter's" key (at least not in Orthodoxy), as it is about the power of binding and loosing which is the fundamental Mystery (Sacrament in the Catholic church) of the Christian church.




Though it does not delve into great detail, it presents a fairly good outline, and it is generally written from a fairly Protestant point of view, so you can be assured that you will not imbibe any Roman bias.


The fact that is not Roman doesn't mean is correct. All of us are under the effect of being tell that Peter was at Rome. Most of people believe even that Papacy was always how it is today.
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  Quote MengTzu Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 17-Sep-2007 at 16:58
Originally posted by Menumorut

"Suffered martyrdom under prefects" is a sign that Clement was knowing how and where Paul died. I think that this refers to Paul's death at Rome, because of the plural prefects, which seems to indicate a more complex administrative aparatus concentrated in one geographical point.
 
A general detail as "under prefects" hardly shows that he had more detailed knowledge about Paul's death than about Peter's death.  Such a general detail doesn't require personal acquaintance, and doesn't prove that Clement hadn't met Peter just because Clement didn't say something similar to that type of description about Peter.

2. Then why he gives details about Paul?
 
As said before, the actual reason is not important: what is important is that "lack of knowledge about Peter's death" is not the only possible reason.

3. Again and again: why he mention a detail about Paul's death and not about Peter's? This could be explained only by:
-that he had lack of knowledge about Peter's death
-he had met Paul and he was more impressed by the personality of Paul
-both of the above
 
It's still possible that he was more impressed by Paul even if he had met both of them.  In addition, there is no reason to limit the possibilities.  It's also possible that he found that Paul's example can demonstrate his lesson better.  It's even possible that he had reasons, unknown to us, to expect his audience to already know more about Peter.  Note again that what the actual reason is is unimportant: my point is to only to show you that "lack of knowledge" or "lack of acquaintance" are not the only possibilities, because your argument relies on them being the only possibilities.
 
Again, my argument is not about what the actual reason was, hence I don't need to prove which reason was the actual one in order to support my point.  All I'm saying is that "lack of knowledge" and "lack of acquaintance" are not the only possible reasons.

Apostles were doing only what they considered is Holy Ghost working in them, nothing else. They were not guiding their acts with some principles but permanently by what they considered to be the divine inspiration.
 
As stated, God could've planned them to go to A at an earlier point and then to B to a later point.  This does not mean God changed his Mind.  He could inspire them to go to place A now and go to place B later.  Divine inspiration does not necessarily imply permanent arrangement.

As the principles of Christ were that the humility is the supreme virtue and that one should be the servant and behave like the last among the others, the only criterion by which one of the apostles could act as a representative of the others remains the age difference.
 
1) This further undermines your argument: perhaps the youngest should be first because he is conventionally considered, as you said, last in Near East culture.
 
2) Again you have arbitrarily excluded yourself to one or two possibilities.  Personality and experience are often reason people choose representative, without the chosen person accepting the role out of pride.

I repeat that was not something established among them, just a behaviour generated by decency and the value of morality.
 
It appears that you're now changing what you said.  I went back to what you said:
 
I sayed that only about the event from Matthew 16.

Peter was not an exception, sometime Jesus is addressing to Philip as to all the apostles
 
Unless I've misunderstood your argument, it appears that you mentioned Philip because you want to say that Peter's representative role is limited to Matthew 16.  That means you're now saying that Peter is not always the established representative.  This completely contradicts a previous evidence you presented for your argument.


Edited by MengTzu - 17-Sep-2007 at 17:11


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  Quote Akolouthos Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 17-Sep-2007 at 17:11
Originally posted by Menumorut

The fact that Clement was writing to the Corinthians in the name of the church in Rome (without mentioning his name) could be explained only he was considered the representant of Rome's church. If a bishop existed, he would not leave this to a priest, as Clement was.
 
You will need to support your theory that Clement is a priest rather than a bishop; in light of all the documentary evidence to the contrary, we must interpret his letter in the context of the accepted historical narrative which presumes his episcopal status. Once again, if you wish to question this narrative, you must provide documentary evidence.
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

Actualy, what Irenaeus says about the bishops of Rome until him is phantastic: he numbers symbolicaly twelve bishops of Rome from Peter to his time. The sixth is called Sixtus:
http://www.ancientpapacy.org/articles/succession1.htm

From this writing (which may have been invented by him for polemic use) has started all the tradition about the pretended bishops of Rome.
 
As your article notes, the successors to Peter were entrusted with the episcopate. I don't really see why you linked to it; it would appear to refute your assertion that Clement was not, indeed, a bishop. You may wish to read it again. If you consider the works of Irenaeus to be fantasy, then why not those of Ignatius, which represent an account of the ancient, episcopal nature of the Church, and which represent early documentation of Eastern ecclesiology?
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

The power was promised then (remarks the future of the verb at Matthew 16) to the apostles (not only to Peter) and was gived after the Ressurection:

22. When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost.

23. Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them: and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained.
(John 20)

There is not any difference between the gift promised at Matthew 16 and what the apostles received after Ressurection.

And there is not any theology about "Peter's" key (at least not in Orthodoxy), as it is about the power of binding and loosing which is the fundamental Mystery (Sacrament in the Catholic church) of the Christian church.
 
First, there is a theology of the keys in Orthodoxy; you will notice Peter depicted with them in iconography. Second, you are confusing the more general power--that to bind and loose--with the more specific Petrine comission, of which the keys represent a part. You have misinterpreted the passage no less than have the Roman apologists. The correct, Orthodox interpretation is that the keys are bestowed upon Peter as recognition that he is a source of unity in the early Church; his position, however, is derived not from his person but from his confession of faith. This is what is meant by the "keys." You might look to Cyprian of Carthage's On the Unity of the Church if you wish to learn more. Origen's Commentary on the Gospel of Matthew also provides us with an orthodox perspective, in that it links the gift of the keys with Peter's confession, and delineates between it and the later, more general gift to the Apostles. While the powers associated are the same, Peter's role in proclaiming the foundational profession of Christian belief must not be de-emphasized.
 
Originally posted by Menumorut

The fact that is not Roman doesn't mean is correct. All of us are under the effect of being tell that Peter was at Rome. Most of people believe even that Papacy was always how it is today.
 
Well, have you read it?
 
I agree: the validity of the historiographical analysis does not derive from its lack of Roman bias, but from its meticulous documentary study. Until you read it, I fail to see how you can criticize it.
 
-Akolouthos


Edited by Akolouthos - 17-Sep-2007 at 17:16
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