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Ottoman perceptions of the Americas

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  Quote Ikki Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Ottoman perceptions of the Americas
    Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 12:06
Like say Byzantine Emperor, was impossible to stablish an ottoman colony in the New World. But, forcing a few the historical facts i think that we can have a good scene for our what if althought, not where you say guys, around the Caribbean sea and the Aztec Empire.

As laterly you was looking, the question here is North frica. That will be the base where our ottomans will begin this enterprise. Since 1516, the ottomans are involved in Algeria (in Lybia before) and along the 20's of that century they could stablish an strange relation of self goverment and centralization between the barbaries and the anatolian Reis family; then they will conquer Tunis and in the 70's will help to put a friend sultan in Morocco. Come back to 1520, Libya had famous pirates but they are centered around the Mediterranean, contrary, our new friends the barbary sailor people, few years in the future they will provide to the Ottoman empire with the better sailors and sea captains of the Mediterranean, they are fervorous allieds and have an atlantic sailing tradition since they trade with moroccan atlantic ports, and laterly will attack place so far from each like Canary islands and Great Britain. In 1518 died Oru Reis the first Beylerbey, and was replaced by his brother Hizir Reis, Barbarossa, this is our man.

What if: Barbarossa and the ottomans, who know since time ago about Amrica (see Piri Reis) see the chance of an expansion into the ocean. The first problem are the ships, the barbary types are fast and good for piracy and quick voyages in the small Mediterranean, but, for the ocean it's needed other type of ships, oceanic carracks like the iberian powers. This is not a problem, a lot can be taken by the force and the ottomans do it quickly, with this first vessels, wich are copied at the moment, the muslims launch several exploration expeditions on the north Atlantic following and valuing the accuracy of iberian charts. Are goods althought change very fast.

First problem: the iberians had closed the ways and is impossible to do anything but with furtivety. The spanish had a total control of the routes between Gibraltar and the Caribbean sea, they sail each year with 50 or more high sea vessels so the land to the north of Tierra Firme (Venezuela) is impossible to take. The portuguese have a regular trade with Orient based on around 10 superpoweful ships plenty of artillery, and a more numerous trade with their colonies in frica NOTE: (I think that a what if based on the ottoman usurpation in frica can be more credible) Fortunatelly, the last muslim explorer have expanded their global knowledge stolening several charts of this portuguese, charts sea routes, of frica and a costly map (one ship was sunked in the action) took from one carabel in rout to Asia. Conclusion: the iberians had a plenty dominion of two of the three routes to the rest of the world.

But, a third route have only little transit an the control of the christians is poor: to the southwest. A land called Brazil is property of Portugal but there aren't anybody there, in fact, Portugal will not have interest for this strange land until 1530. So our barbary-ottoman explorers after two years of intense search have a good option in the New World (Brazil was the weak point of the portuguese until 1570, the french triyed unsucesfully to stablish there) In 1520, an ottoman expedion go down by the atlantic frica with the winds and sea currents and reach Brazil in few times.

Second problem: the land is not good for the mediterranean cultives and isn't good for the ottoman way of warfare. Worst, the portuguese have attacked the colony with small forces and surelly they will try again. The colony must be destroyed but in the last moment an spanish ship, lost in the route to Cuba, have sunked in the colony. They have charts of more land to the south and say that few years ago, in 1516, a colony called Buenos Aires was destroyed by indians and from that time anybody have interest in settled there, and less in this year of 1521, a huge indigenous empire have been conquered by Corts! Our intrepid colonist have a new chance and go to the south, where they find a perfect place where put a settle, the Ro de la Plata in modern Argentina. The climate is similar to the motherland, the land is rich and could provide goods harvest of cereals without problem, into the continent, the land expanded in a beatifoul plane perfect for the turkish cavalry.

The colony is far, but the communications aren't impossible. The real problem for the ships is come back to the Mediterranean, two routes, go up by the african coast and turn by east frica and reach Egypt, routes severely watched by the portugueses. But our explorers are intrepid, and after years they are good atlantic sailors so is not impossible althought very hard come back. (HIGHLY HYPOTETICAL)Spain after time know about this colony in "her" territory and think about sent an expedition, but the opportunities in New Spain are greats and the ottomans surelly will die there against those indians and the hard winters, no problem by now.

From their new colony in Argentine, we must force to our muslims for explore many lands in few time (isn't impossible, see the spanish explorations of North Amrica). They find hunting peoples in the plains in front of the colony, to the south cold regions with hunting peoples, and to the north primitive agricultural societies in modern south Brazil, similar to those of the destroyed colony in north Brazil. The surprise jump when a cavalry expedition of turks see with surprise a huge line of mountains in front of they, but must turn back before the winter (that is, in July LOL )The next year, the colony sent a new expedition of a few mounted men and foot archers, plus several allied indians 100 no more. Advancing along the inmense plain, wich give good memories to a few tartars adventurers, they finally go into the mountains and talk with the natives: they are farmers, members of a brave tribe called the araucans, but they are subjugated to a powerful and severe king; few days then, and official of this king appear where the muslim are (we are in 1527): announce to the strange people that this land is a property of the divine king, the son of the gods, the Inca that reign in this empire called Tahuantinsuyu.



The dettails of the shock of civilizations since 1521 for you friends Smile


Edited by Ikki - 25-Jan-2007 at 15:04
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  Quote Mortaza Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 12:48
Not sure what you mean here.  I know that Janissaries were recruited from non-Muslim families.  But they are required to convert upon becoming Janissaries, correct?  If they became Muslim first, yes, they would be ineligible.
 
It is not easy to give their son(Some times children lost their contact with their family.) I dont think azteks would accept this voluntarily but I have no knowledge about aztec culture. So maybe, they will not refuse giving their child much.
 
Why not?  It would seem to me that an outpost or colony in far-off America would definitely be considered the edge of the Empire.
 
Hmm. Infact you are right, but still what is great danger for ottomans at america. Where is enemity between christians and muslims? why should gazis attack natives? what should gazis do at america? I should add they are irregulars. They do their job because they want.
 
I think, traders would rush america but they are mostly non-muslim too.
 
To answer this I think we must apply knowledge of real historical outcomes to the situation.  What did the Spanish, French, and English have to offer the Native Americans when they came to the New World?  Besides the negative things like debilitating diseases, the Europeans offered tradable goods and certain economic benefits.  Even if they were not willing to voluntarily give the indians this, the Europeans brought technological advancements, horses, and new crops to the New World.  The Ottomans could offer these same things if not more, as pekau indicated earlier.  As DayI pointed out, the Ottomans controlled some lucrative trade routes; if they could find a way to network them (via Africa, maybe) to the Americas, this might be beneficial.
 
why should aztec forgave their superiority? Trade is not enough motivation.At least I think so.
 
Actually, I think this is a practice that the Ottomans inherited from the Byzantines.  The fine art of population transfer.  It provides manpower to both the colony and the Empire back home.  If the transplanted Aztecs are converted, and some are Janissaries, it would re-enforce Anatolia, which was a difficult area to maintain for both the Byzantines and the Ottomans.  It would definitely add a whole to element to the ethnic character of the region!
 
It would be realy interesting to have some anatolian aztecs.
 
Yes, but as the Empire became larger and difficult to manage, it became less tolerant towards different religious beliefs.  Here is where they would probably declare Jihad against the Aztecs who still clung to their old naturistic religion.
 
Not excatly, Ottoman becomed less tolerant, when they becomes weak. For expanding at Europea they need christian acceptance(Specially orthodox one.) but when their expansion stoped, they needed muslims to protect their land.
 
We are talking about an expanding ottomans, so they should treat newly conquered lands nice.
 
So you think that the method of conversion to Bektashi sects is not applicable to the situation with the Aztecs? 
 
Bektashi conversion method is none. They are mostly jenisarries who followed bektasis. I should add It is not actively seeking for conversion too.
 
Still I see only sufist and tarikats interest with converting natives. (Or allience system ottoman would build.)
 
guess is the Albanians were Orthodox before the Ottoman conquest.  But there is a chance that some of the old Slavic pagan practices had survived in the rural areas, I suppose.
 
I heard, It is generaly catholic albanians converted. (Not sure)
 
Anyway, Albanians were the people who gave most devsirhmes to ottomans. Infact albanians have more vezir than turks at ottomans. I think, this is the reason for their bektasi sect. They had to much contact with jenisarries.
 
I think, If we create an alternative campaing for ottomans, we should search for ottoman africa. It would be they who would attack america.
 
were they poor? were they ready to immigrate america? were they fanatic muslims or opportunist?
 
Why dont you ask more easy questions.LOL I am realy curious If I find any turkish knowledge about this topic.
 
 
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  Quote pekau Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 12:58

From Ikki's POW, I guess it's possible for Ottoman Empire to emerge as the naval power that could overwhelm even the British Royal Navy. If Ottoman controls much of America, the Turks would realize that the significance of navy would be important. Instead of Ottoman Empire concentrating on the Balkans... (Other than putting more troops and defense systems) they would form pirate warships that could hunt down the trade routes like Britain did to the Spain. Britain would be outraged, but other European nations might see this as a chance to end the Britain's sea supremacy.

In fact, many Europeans allianced with Napoleon against Britain to practice Continental Blockade against Britain because everyone were jealous of Britain's commerical success. If France practiced the blockade like everyone else, and if Napoleon had some decent navy to protect the vital sea routes... Britain would have collapsed and Napoleon may have conquered the world as we know it.
 
But back to the topic. The turks, like how Britain sent people to study Turks' superior textile, would be able to study the tactics, and better knowledge of sea warfare... they would have plenty of resources and maqnpower to mass produce navy that could rival or even surpass the British Royal Navy. Even better, the Turks could make a deal with Spain to attack Gibraltar. Turks' superior artillery and their overwhelming manpower with possible reinforcement from Spain or Spanish mercernaries could allow Turks to win, hence securing the Gibraltar Straight. This waterway could be easily secured since the wateway is narrow and Turks do not need compelx tactic to defend it. Moreover the superior artillery that Turks have could bombard the narrowly formationed British invaders, making it impossible for Britain to challenge the Ottoman Empire. Even better, the Turks could set the mines... and minesweepers could be sniped for bombarded by Turks before the navy could come in. This would also make Britain in difficult to launch a suprise attack. The only option for Britain is to attack by land... but Spain would not be pleased since their sovereignity would be violated, and invasion to Africa would be difficult since Turks' influence is firm in North Africa. Invasion from the South Africa is nearly out of question due to the fact that Britain did not even know any routes until Dr. Livingstone explored Africa... and the diseases, possible ambush by African resistance and wild animals, its geography, etc... You get the idea.
 
I am not sure about this, but is winter in South Africa and Souther US have cold winter? I heard about brutal exploration in Canada because of their harsh winter, but I think weather is not going to be a huge issue. Isn't this the reason why Britain gave up the colonization in Canada and settled for Thirteen colonies...?
 
     
   
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  Quote Mortaza Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 13:18
I am not sure about spain allience. Infact I remember Ottomans bombarded spain borders with the help of france.
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  Quote Ikki Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 13:37
Originally posted by pekau

...
 


Confused Pekau, you are talking about England like was in the XVIII century, the english involvement in the New World was nothing until the second half of the XVI century and the first continuous colony wasn't stablished until 1600; the Royal Navy was a navy involved in european affairs and weakest than the iberian navies until the 80's of the XVI century, and not the first until 1700 after the defeat of the Dutch. Forget by now to the british.

Pd. Forget too, totally, any collaboration between spanish and ottomans.


Edited by Ikki - 25-Jan-2007 at 13:38
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  Quote pekau Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 14:00
Originally posted by Ikki

Originally posted by pekau

...
 


Confused Pekau, you are talking about England like was in the XVIII century, the english involvement in the New World was nothing until the second half of the XVI century and the first continuous colony wasn't stablished until 1600; the Royal Navy was a navy involved in european affairs and weakest than the iberian navies until the 80's of the XVI century, and not the first until 1700 after the defeat of the Dutch. Forget by now to the british.

Pd. Forget too, totally, any collaboration between spanish and ottomans.
 
Why not? History witnessed some bizzare alliance that should not ahve made sense. Remember Nazi-Soviet Nonaggression Pact?
     
   
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  Quote pekau Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 14:03
And yes, I got confused with the date. SorryEmbarrassed...
     
   
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  Quote Byzantine Emperor Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 14:07
Originally posted by Ikki

Pekau, you are talking about England like was in the XVIII century, the english involvement in the New World was nothing until the second half of the XVI century and the first continuous colony wasn't stablished until 1600; the Royal Navy was a navy involved in european affairs and weakest than the iberian navies until the 80's of the XVI century, and not the first until 1700 after the defeat of the Dutch. Forget by now to the british.

Pd. Forget too, totally, any collaboration between spanish and ottomans.
 
Thanks Ikki and pekau for the detailed posts.  Clap
 
Soon, I want to reply to both of them to the best of my ability.  In the meantime, lets keep the timeframe in the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries, please.
 
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  Quote Mortaza Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 14:14
Uh I made some search about ottoman africa, absolutely no knowledge(Just I guess).
 
One source I see, says ottomans went to coast of tanzania, north of chad, niger, mali, senegal and have hegomony over moritania and  Western Sahara. I am not sure If these countries have pagan population. Also I suspect source a little:)(well more than a little)
 
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  Quote pekau Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 14:17
Yeah, it's a sticky topic. Reference is going to help us, but that's very limited. We have to somehow make a logical guess.
     
   
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  Quote Ikki Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 14:22
Originally posted by pekau

Originally posted by Ikki

Originally posted by pekau

...
 


Confused Pekau, you are talking about England like was in the XVIII century, the english involvement in the New World was nothing until the second half of the XVI century and the first continuous colony wasn't stablished until 1600; the Royal Navy was a navy involved in european affairs and weakest than the iberian navies until the 80's of the XVI century, and not the first until 1700 after the defeat of the Dutch. Forget by now to the british.

Pd. Forget too, totally, any collaboration between spanish and ottomans.
 
Why not? History witnessed some bizzare alliance that should not ahve made sense. Remember Nazi-Soviet Nonaggression Pact?


The nazi-soviet rivalry is a joke in comparation with the spanish-muslim strugle LOL

Can't be, because by this time since the Chatolic Kings "Spain" was in conflict with the ottomans, and during the reign of Charles V the conflict increased in a hard war in North frica and the Mediterranean sea, in North frica the ottomans supporting indirect or directly to the barbary states against the spanish cities of there (a lot along the Maghreb coast), in the western Mediterranean in a long an wasteful war of piracy and sack and in the central ordinary war with the ottoman fleets in the defence of Italy.

The 20's of the XVI century was a period of relative calm in the mediterranean theatre of this war, until the imperial (mainly spanish) invasion of Tunis of 1534.

The only allied of the ottomans was France (wich is not few Confused, the second power of Europe) Those traitors french (Wink) prefeared aid to the infidels than lost against the imperials.



Byzantine Emperor said

Soon, I want to reply to both of them to the best of my ability.  In the meantime, lets keep the timeframe in the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries, please.


Please don't lost many time with the thinghs that i said, the discussion go by good way in the first page, in the way of analisis the hypotethical relations between the muslim ottoman power and the natives and i don't want lose the sense of that good discussion. I only propose to change "aztecs" by incas, and ummm arawaks by mapuches in a very few more credible setting. Anymore.



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  Quote pekau Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 20:23
I agree. Limiting the historical period only limits our imagination. I will come back for more info... after I finish the exam tomorrow. Wish me luck, though I don't think it's going to be that difficult.Exclamation
     
   
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  Quote Guests Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jan-2007 at 23:05
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

 Would they approach the natives in the same way as they approached Europeans, diplomatically?

.
 
 
Yes, they'd have to be diplomatic, otherwise Aztecs and other indigineous peoples would have wipe them out. Take as an example to what happened to the Vikings in the Americas, that could not stand decided tribes that stopped them.
 
Let me say it loud and clear: that Spaniards conquered Mexico with 1.000 men is a MYTH. Without the colaborations of the tribes that were enemies of the Aztecs Spaniards would have NEVER succeed. Spaniards were quite skillful in diplomacy and in war; they used both tools similtaneously.
 
 
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

What decisions are you refering to here?
 .
 
The decision to TOLERATE to the natives certains customs and "bad religious manners" that they didn't tolerate in Christian Europeans!!
Remember, for instance, that Inquisition was never used against natives. Spaniards considered theirs frienly natives like if they were children to be teach and win for Christianity.
 
In short, Ottomans would have to resort to PATIENCE in the Americas, in the same way Spaniards did. And why Spaniards? Because unlike Brits, Portugueses and French -which only settled in low density territories with very backward tribes-, the Spaniards conquered the most populated lands and the most advanced empires of the Americas, and fought against some of the most organized tribes in war. And many times they were defeated.
 
 
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Concerning the conversion of the Aztecs, I am wondering if jihad would eventually be declared upon them.  
 .
 
Bad idea. That could mean the extermination of the fanatics. Native Americans took revenge lots of times, and uprisings were quite organized. For a people living at the antipodes of the metropolis, like the Ottomans, the posibility of been massacred was a real one.
 
  
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Yes, this is an interesting point!  If you could describe it, what would this new syncretism look like?  A combination of Aztec religious practices and Islam sounds very exotic, indeed.
 
 
 
Well, consider this in the tradition of the Catholic Church in the Americas. There are many Catholic festivities that are based upon ancestral Native American legends and gods. An example is the Virgin of Guadaloupe, the mixed raced Virgin that represents the Amerindian and Mixed people of the Americas. Her veneration is done in the same places of an ancient Aztec godness of the earth.
 
In my country there is also Catholic festivities based in Native legends of the time of the conquest. Actually, in any country of Latin America you find a fusion of Native believes that permeates popular interpretation of Catholicism. Those are custums unknown in Europe.
 
Other extreme case is the believe in the Holly Death in Mexico, which have a extremely clear pagan origin, mixed with certain Catholic rituals. The veneration of Death is very ancient in the people of Mexico, and its roots could be in the Aztec religion. By the way, unlike the common culture, Mexican religiosity is absolutely different to the believes in other Latin American countries. Other Latinos can't understand why Mexicas use colorfull cofins, eat luch in the cementery with the death and pracise other strange things (for us). In most Latinos countries death is feared in an almost supersticious way. In Mexico, death is celebrated.
 
I hope I transmmited the idea that ancient cultures didn't dissapear and that still exist in the subconcient of each Latin American peoples; all different between themselves because of those influences.
 
That's what I mean.
 
Pinguin
 


Edited by pinguin - 25-Jan-2007 at 23:07
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  Quote Byzantine Emperor Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jan-2007 at 00:03
Originally posted by pinguin

Let me say it loud and clear: that Spaniards conquered Mexico with 1.000 men is a MYTH. Without the colaborations of the tribes that were enemies of the Aztecs Spaniards would have NEVER succeed. Spaniards were quite skillful in diplomacy and in war; they used both tools similtaneously.
 
Yes, but they steadily conquered Central America with a small number of men, with the collaboration of tribes hostile to the Aztec city-dwellers.  Although I don't buy into the huge numbers of Jared Diamond's argument, we must factor in the toll that European germs must have taken on the Aztecs.  Like I said when pekau mentioned Guns, Germs, and Steel, the Ottomans undoubtedly would have brought their own unique germs to the New World too.
 
Originally posted by pinguin

The decision to TOLERATE to the natives certains customs and "bad religious manners" that they didn't tolerate in Christian Europeans!!
Remember, for instance, that Inquisition was never used against natives. Spaniards considered theirs frienly natives like if they were children to be teach and win for Christianity.
 
How did the Spanish eventually deal with the rites of human sacrifice that was within the native religion of the Aztecs?  My guess is that they might have reacted harshly at first, but then tried to weed it out of them over time by instilling Catholic Christian values in their place.
 
But, would the Ottomans be as understanding and as patient as the Spanish?  It depends on the religious element that is present within the colony.  If the Sultan sends out religious zealots and imams (what is the Ottoman equivalent of an imam, again?), jihad could be declared too soon.
 
Originally posted by pinguin

the Spaniards conquered the most populated lands and the most advanced empires of the Americas, and fought against some of the most organized tribes in war. And many times they were defeated.
 
Militarily, how would the Ottomans match up to some of these organized tribes?  We will have to look at the actual conflict that occured between the Spanish and the indians, and then apply what we know of sixteenth-century Ottoman armies, although on a smaller scale.
 
Originally posted by pinguin

Well, consider this in the tradition of the Catholic Church in the Americas. There are many Catholic festivities that are based upon ancestral Native American legends and gods. An example is the Virgin of Guadaloupe, the mixed raced Virgin that represents the Amerindian and Mixed people of the Americas. Her veneration is done in the same places of an ancient Aztec godness of the earth.
 
In my country there is also Catholic festivities based in Native legends of the time of the conquest. Actually, in any country of Latin America you find a fusion of Native believes that permeates popular interpretation of Catholicism. Those are custums unknown in Europe.
 
Other extreme case is the believe in the Holly Death in Mexico, which have a extremely clear pagan origin, mixed with certain Catholic rituals. The veneration of Death is very ancient in the people of Mexico, and its roots could be in the Aztec religion. By the way, unlike the common culture, Mexican religiosity is absolutely different to the believes in other Latin American countries. Other Latinos can't understand why Mexicas use colorfull cofins, eat luch in the cementery with the death and pracise other strange things (for us). In most Latinos countries death is feared in an almost supersticious way. In Mexico, death is celebrated.
 
I hope I transmmited the idea that ancient cultures didn't dissapear and that still exist in the subconcient of each Latin American peoples; all different between themselves because of those influences.
 
Very interesting indeed!  I appreciate the perspective you bring, being from South America.  Smile
 
Originally posted by Mortaza

Uh I made some search about ottoman africa, absolutely no knowledge(Just I guess).
 
One source I see, says ottomans went to coast of tanzania, north of chad, niger, mali, senegal and have hegomony over moritania and  Western Sahara. I am not sure If these countries have pagan population. Also I suspect source a little:)(well more than a little)
 
 
Thanks for the link, Mortaza.  I have been doing some preliminary searching for some literature on this topic.  So far, what I have found are a couple of scholarly books on the Ottoman slave trade, which included some sub-Saharan Africans.  These might provide some details.  Other than that, I have an obscure journal article on Ottoman contacts in East Africa.  I will post the references once they are collected.  If any other member who is lurking out there reading this post can help us, please reply!
 
Ikki, I have not forgotten your excellent post from the top of the page.  I will reply to it once I have fully digested everything that you wrote!
 


Edited by Byzantine Emperor - 27-Jan-2007 at 00:19
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  Quote Ikki Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jan-2007 at 04:45
Originally posted by Mortaza

Uh I made some search about ottoman africa, absolutely no knowledge(Just I guess).
 
One source I see, says ottomans went to coast of tanzania, north of chad, niger, mali, senegal and have hegomony over moritania and  Western Sahara. I am not sure If these countries have pagan population. Also I suspect source a little:)(well more than a little)
 


Umm no Mortaza, i don't know well the ottoman activity in eastern frica, but in the north and the west they don't overpassed the limits of Algeria and the Fezzn (Libyc desert) Modern western Shara was a confuse territory where lived several tribes many of they vassals (with very weak relations, more friends than vassals) of the sultan of Morocco. The moroquians advanced in the 90's of the XVI century across the Shara with a powerful and modern army and attacked the Nger region where the Songhay empire, conquering their main cities (as Gao and Tombuct) This lands had a muslim elite (well, in the great cities the majority was muslim) and a country mainly pagan.

But no ottomans here.
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  Quote Jagatai Khan Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 27-Jan-2007 at 08:53
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

 
Disregarding the economic and military detriments to expansion there, what were the religious and ideological reasons for the Ottoman perceptions/conceptions of the Americas in the sixteenth century?  I am wondering what role the opinions of Sunni Muslim theologians and intellectuals had in the formation of these perceptions.
 


There was not any ideological reason.As it was done in Renaissance period, Ottoman Empire was not interested in new world discoveries, although Meditterenean and Black Sea lost their importance, Ottomans still didn't state a policy about new world.An Ottoman expansion to the New World would take place in Suleiman I's period if it was done, from 1520 to 1566 empire reached it extreme power.

But after Suleiman, Ottomans never had the wealth to land on New World.

Suleiman's rushes from Germany to Iran got the first budget deficit in empire, later Lepanto defeat and battles with Iran in 1580s-90s removed the discovery chance.

Ottomans didn't have caravels, their galleys were no match for ocean waters and European caravels and frigates already.The defeat in Lepanto confirms this.


Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor


In a venture into alternative history, say in fact the Ottomans did establish a sustainable colony in Central or South America (leave trouble with the Spanish out for the moment).  How would the Ottomans view the Native Americans (especially the Aztecs), having come into direct contact with them?  Would they consider them potential converts who must eventually be brought into the world of Islam?


There would not be a strong colony i think.Ottoman expansion in Balkans based on fusing the Ottoman state system with their local system on citizens, with not converting anyone, describing everyone as "Ottoman citizen" according to the "Millet system".

I don't know about Aztecs so much, their laws, their living style; but Ottomans were accustomed to citizens who were used to live under the laws of a state.

Europeans succeeded it with some cheating and lying(forgive me), not creating a citizenship.

It would be very hard for Ottomans to live there.


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  Quote ok ge Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 28-Jan-2007 at 16:29

that is an interesting question. Though most forumers here answered the question from many aspects, I might be redundant in stressing the following answers:
First, one factor that aided the Spaniards in conquesting the Aztec regions and most of the region is the epidemic spread of smallbox in 1520-1521, less than a year of Spaniards landing. Wikiepdia states 10-50% casaulties due to newly introduced disease, however other accounts on similar contacts to Latin American Natives push the ratio of fatality much higher. In either cases, the Ottomans, British, Spaniards or any arrival from the Old World would have the advantage of the epidemic spread in conquering the area.

Second, a similar trend to Native Americans is the hospitality and welcoming attitude to new arrivals. The Aztec welcomed the Spaniards in Tenochtitlan or in Florida around St. Augustine area, the story continues identical where the welcomed temporary guests are now realized to be colonizers and hostility would evovle as witnessed by history. The conclusion here that had the Ottomans landed there, they would have gained the factor of natives cooperation and hospitality at the begining, however the story might had a different end. Whereas Spaniards engaged in temporary alliances with some Native Americans, a direct Spaniard rule is a subject of no negotiation with a Spaniard direct governor. However, the Ottomans are known in instituting cooperative native rulers, thus an indirect Ottoman authority.

Third, the Spaniards had a major goals to achieve, a primary goal for sure was gaining wealth through ownership of gold and silver sources. This requires direct ownership of land and right of extracting those metals. Trade was not the mean to increasing wealth. The Ottomans on the other hand were setting already on major trade routes and trade with Italians ports and Indian ports was on regular basis. Had the Ottomans reached the New World, gold would have not been a deriving motive, neither direct ownership of its sources is a goal. Thus, eliminating the possibility that the Ottomans would institute direct ownership of land and its wealth, and the chances of hostility toward Natives.

Fourth, the Ottomans did not have an institution of missionary work, neither they instituted forced conversion in the lands they conquested in Europe. Out of all of the vast area they controlled of Southern and Eastern Europe for more than half a millenium, only Bosnians and Albanians converted to the Ottomans religion, Islam. Therefore, it is hard to imagine the Ottomans attitude to change once an Ottoman Central American colony is established.

After all of this, why didn't the Ottomans take the adventure, I would agree with what Jagatai said. 1500's were the peak of Ottoman expansion in Europe and the Middle East, whereas Spain and Portugal were struggling establishing their feet on various ports on the costal lines of Northern Africa, Red sea, and Oman. In addition, the Ottomans were preoccupied by their wars with the Safavid in the East and Eastern and Central Europe in the West. Remember than Colombus did not sail till the conquest of Grenada in 1492, as any war is a hault to financing any ambitious plans of discoveries, including Ottomans sail to Atlantic.
Add to this, Spain and Portugal both are located on the Eastern shores of the Atlantic. Would Colombus present his plan to sail to the West of the Atlantic to his home Italian merchants Genoa and Venice, the Holy Roman Empire in Central Europe, the Ottoman Sultan in Constantinipole, or to the Portuguese and Spaniards (In reality he presented the plan to both)?
Finally, the internal Jelali revolts in Anatolia in 1500's and 1600's (at least 5 major revolts!) took a heavy toll of money and lives and definitely distracting the Ottomans from any ambitious plans. Revolts and civil disorder is fatal for overseas colonies (the French lost their first colony in the Americas in Florida due to home unrest and civil war between the Catholics and Reformers (Protestants) ). Even if the Ottomans were able to establish a colony in Central Asia, it would be a short lived one.

A question that I would like to raise, and probably emperor Barbarosa expected an answer from me but unfortunately I'm clueless to it, is the question of Ottomans attitude to indigenous out of the "People of the book" definition. We know that the Ottomans for most of their history used a de-centralized government form using existing or instituted local rulers, thus no direct systematic prosecution on indigenous populations. However, Ottomans experience of conquest was in Christian and Muslim lands. Would their attitude be different to Aztecs for instance? No similar experience of the Ottomans can answer this. However, Hindus in India witnessed incidents of prosecution due to the fact they are of out of "people of the book" definition under the Mughul empire. While some forumers would like to draw a similar fate to the Aztec had the Ottomans ruled Central Asia, I would still avoid this assumption because Ottomans authority was mostly indirect to its subjects and the possibility of "idol worshippers" prosecution is extremely hard to be enforced by a local instituted Aztec ruler from the Sultan.


Edited by ok ge - 28-Jan-2007 at 16:43
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  Quote malizai_ Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jan-2007 at 10:18

Wouldn't the Ottoman navy also have been busy exerting control over the Mediterranean, engaging the genoese and venetians etc. The whole cause of the circumnavigation.

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  Quote eaglecap Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jan-2007 at 11:58
I found your primary sources about the fall of Constantinople in 1453 but boy they are impossible to purchase so I am waiting for an interlibrary loan.
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  Quote pekau Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 29-Jan-2007 at 14:48
Originally posted by pinguin

Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

 Would they approach the natives in the same way as they approached Europeans, diplomatically?

.
 
 
Yes, they'd have to be diplomatic, otherwise Aztecs and other indigineous peoples would have wipe them out. Take as an example to what happened to the Vikings in the Americas, that could not stand decided tribes that stopped them.
 
Let me say it loud and clear: that Spaniards conquered Mexico with 1.000 men is a MYTH. Without the colaborations of the tribes that were enemies of the Aztecs Spaniards would have NEVER succeed. Spaniards were quite skillful in diplomacy and in war; they used both tools similtaneously.
 
 
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

What decisions are you refering to here?
 .
 
The decision to TOLERATE to the natives certains customs and "bad religious manners" that they didn't tolerate in Christian Europeans!!
Remember, for instance, that Inquisition was never used against natives. Spaniards considered theirs frienly natives like if they were children to be teach and win for Christianity.
 
In short, Ottomans would have to resort to PATIENCE in the Americas, in the same way Spaniards did. And why Spaniards? Because unlike Brits, Portugueses and French -which only settled in low density territories with very backward tribes-, the Spaniards conquered the most populated lands and the most advanced empires of the Americas, and fought against some of the most organized tribes in war. And many times they were defeated.
 
 
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Concerning the conversion of the Aztecs, I am wondering if jihad would eventually be declared upon them.  
 .
 
Bad idea. That could mean the extermination of the fanatics. Native Americans took revenge lots of times, and uprisings were quite organized. For a people living at the antipodes of the metropolis, like the Ottomans, the posibility of been massacred was a real one.
 
  
Originally posted by Byzantine Emperor

Yes, this is an interesting point!  If you could describe it, what would this new syncretism look like?  A combination of Aztec religious practices and Islam sounds very exotic, indeed.
 
 
 
Well, consider this in the tradition of the Catholic Church in the Americas. There are many Catholic festivities that are based upon ancestral Native American legends and gods. An example is the Virgin of Guadaloupe, the mixed raced Virgin that represents the Amerindian and Mixed people of the Americas. Her veneration is done in the same places of an ancient Aztec godness of the earth.
 
In my country there is also Catholic festivities based in Native legends of the time of the conquest. Actually, in any country of Latin America you find a fusion of Native believes that permeates popular interpretation of Catholicism. Those are custums unknown in Europe.
 
Other extreme case is the believe in the Holly Death in Mexico, which have a extremely clear pagan origin, mixed with certain Catholic rituals. The veneration of Death is very ancient in the people of Mexico, and its roots could be in the Aztec religion. By the way, unlike the common culture, Mexican religiosity is absolutely different to the believes in other Latin American countries. Other Latinos can't understand why Mexicas use colorfull cofins, eat luch in the cementery with the death and pracise other strange things (for us). In most Latinos countries death is feared in an almost supersticious way. In Mexico, death is celebrated.
 
I hope I transmmited the idea that ancient cultures didn't dissapear and that still exist in the subconcient of each Latin American peoples; all different between themselves because of those influences.
 
That's what I mean.
 
Pinguin
 
 
Pinguin, do you know how many Spanish invaders there were?
     
   
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