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azimuth
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Topic: some questions about greece Posted: 23-Dec-2004 at 12:53 |
i have some questions about greece
can the greek people now read the ancient writings and is it pronounced the same way?
how for example the name Alexander pronounced at his time and how is it pronounced now?
does the macedonian language alot different from the greek one or is the different like between spanish and portugese?
and at school these days what do they teach the young about the roman ? do they mention that it was good or not?
thats all for now
thanx
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Christscrusader
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Posted: 23-Dec-2004 at 13:56 |
Ok fort he Greek and Macedonian language. The Greek language is not at all similar with the Macedonian language, the Macedonian language is a Slavic language, i hear very similar to Bulgarian.
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Yiannis
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Posted: 24-Dec-2004 at 04:37 |
Originally posted by azimuth
can the greek people now read the ancient writings and is it pronounced the same way? |
No, both the pronunciation (in a much lesser degree) and syntax have changed. There're many different pronounciations according to the region and there still are. Ancient Greek evolved to "Koine" Greek (which is very similar to modern Greek) and "koine" evolved to "Demotike" Greek which is the modern-day language. I can only read words (I never had lessons) and a few sentences in Ancient Greek but I have no problem reading "Koine"
Originally posted by azimuth
how for example the name Alexander pronounced at his time and how is it pronounced now? |
Exactly the same: Alexandros
Originally posted by azimuth
does the macedonian language alot different from the greek one or is the different like between spanish and portugese? |
Depends what language you refer to. Ancient Macedonian was (according to all sources and inscriptions) a Northern Greek dialect, same as e.g. Thessalian or Epirote.
Modern-day Slavomacedonian is (of course) a Slavic dialect very similar to Bulgarian.
Originally posted by azimuth
and at school these days what do they teach the young about the roman ? do they mention that it was good or not? |
Well, correct me if I'm wrong, but it's not a question of good or bad. As I remember the focus was on Roman Civil Law, Administration, architecture and their wars. Some events were considered positive and some negative. Perhaps someone who has been in school more recently that me can better reply to the question
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azimuth
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Posted: 24-Dec-2004 at 12:41 |
thank you guys for answering my Questions
i just have some comments
Originally posted by Yiannis
No, both the pronunciation (in a much lesser degree) and syntax have changed. There're many different pronounciations according to the region and there still are. Ancient Greek evolved to "Koine" Greek (which is very similar to modern Greek) and "koine" evolved to "Demotike" Greek which is the modern-day language. I can only read words (I never had lessons) and a few sentences in Ancient Greek but I have no problem reading "Koine"
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so the modern Greek use the same letters as the Ancient Greek?
Originally posted by Yiannis
Depends what language you refer to. Ancient Macedonian was (according to all sources and inscriptions) a Northern Greek dialect, same as e.g. Thessalian or Epirote.
Modern-day Slavomacedonian is (of course) a Slavic dialect very similar to Bulgarian.
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what made these old languges change? as far as i know there was always greek poeple in Greece, some empire forced them to speak differently?
Originally posted by Yiannis
Well, correct me if I'm wrong, but it's not a question of good or bad. As I remember the focus was on Roman Civil Law, Administration, architecture and their wars. Some events were considered positive and some negative. Perhaps someone who has been in school more recently that me can better reply to the question
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what i meant is , was the Roman Empire good to Greece or not ? for example do they teach the students that the Roman were strangers? ( i mean the early Romans)
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Fizzil
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Posted: 24-Dec-2004 at 14:33 |
They have a roman arch of victory (or something like that) in a greek
city (the capital?) that hinted that behind the arch was the old city
(greeks) and after it was the new one (romans).
Yes i don't know much about roman history in greece but i saw that on TV and my memory is vague on this issue.
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Infidel
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Posted: 25-Dec-2004 at 08:08 |
Originally posted by azimuth
so the modern Greek use the same letters as the Ancient Greek? |
Yes, the very same alphabet. Only the way they pronounce it, it's different from the Ancient Greek pronounciation (also know as Erasmian Pronounciation) adopted in almost western schools.
For instance, words that are still the same, like "poietes" (poet), should be read literally "poy-eh-tehs" in ancient greek, but nowadays it's just "pee-ee-tees".
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Hellinas
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Posted: 26-Dec-2004 at 01:19 |
In Greece, when studying the classics at school and Universities, we are aware of the strife of foreign philologists to reconstruct ancient pronunciation or prosady, but we do not use it ourselves.
Today, Erasmic is used only in non-greek schools and universities. In Hellas, only "standard", pronunciation is used for any texts, from Homer to today's newspapers. This whole Erasmic theory was based on the fact that Hellinic loan words in the Latin language are spelled differently than they were pronounced when speaking Hellinic. What is actually very interesting is the fact that, even though he did "introduce" (it was developed by other scholars before him), it is a well known fact that he DID NOT use this pronounciation himself. It is also a well known fact, that it's much easier for a non-Hellin to pronounce all binary combinations of letters in erasmic manner. This is probably the reason they support this "theory". Two links that show the pronounciation difference:
Philoglossia Greek Alphabet Lessons by the Institute of Language and Speech Processing: ILSP of Thrace, GREECE (I'd like to think they know something more about their own language than what Berkley does)
http://www.xanthi.ilsp.gr/filog/ch1/alphabet/alphabet.asp
and
For the Erasmic: Ancient Greek Tutorials by Berkeley University USA
http://socrates.berkeley.edu/~ancgreek/ancient_greek_start.h tml
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azimuth
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Posted: 26-Dec-2004 at 02:36 |
yes it is very intersting
but what made the pronouciation change that much?
i wonder if the chinese are talking in the way as the ancient times
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Hellinas
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Posted: 26-Dec-2004 at 06:07 |
azimuth
>>yes it is very intersting
but what made the pronouciation change that much?<<
Not sure I understand what you mean, as I said "In Hellas, only "standard", pronunciation is used for any texts, from Homer to today's newspapers." So what change are we talking about?
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BattleGlory
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Posted: 26-Dec-2004 at 21:24 |
so the modern Greek use the same letters as the Ancient Greek? |
No, it depends on what period and what regions you're talking about.
Yes, the very same alphabet. Only the way they pronounce it, it's different from the Ancient Greek pronounciation (also know as Erasmian Pronounciation) adopted in almost western schools. |
No. Erasmian, for all practical purposes, is Latin pronounciation applied to Greek. Reconstructed Ancient Greek is much different.
but what made the pronouciation change that much?<< |
Lots of things happen in thousands of years. Interaction with different languages, evolution of pronounciation to an easier way to say things (Modern Greek pronounciation is a lot easier than Ancient Greek IMHO), etc. Just watch old movies from the 50s and compare how people talk to now. You can tell that the pronounciation is different, now multiply that by several hundred times and you'll get a big difference.
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azimuth
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Posted: 26-Dec-2004 at 22:59 |
Originally posted by Hellinas
Not sure I understand what you mean, as I said "In Hellas, only "standard", pronunciation is used for any texts, from Homer to today's newspapers." So what change are we talking about?
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oh sorry i guess i misunderstood your post
i thought this "Standard" pronunciation is used now different from the Standard pronunciation like 2800 years ago( homer's time).
or am i wrong?
can you please explain what was the borders of Hellas at Homer's time
i mean the people who shared the same language and culture at that time, is it the same as it is shown in the maps as Greece border?
Edited by azimuth
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azimuth
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Posted: 26-Dec-2004 at 23:15 |
Originally posted by BattleGlory
No, it depends on what period and what regions you're talking about.. |
iam talking about ancient times at the time of Socrat and alexander and the region i meant is where is Greece now.
Originally posted by BattleGlory
Lots of things happen in thousands of years. Interaction with different languages, evolution of pronounciation to an easier way to say things (Modern Greek pronounciation is a lot easier than Ancient Greek IMHO), etc. Just watch old movies from the 50s and compare how people talk to now. You can tell that the pronounciation is different, now multiply that by several hundred times and you'll get a big difference.
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so there is difference
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Spartakus
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Posted: 27-Dec-2004 at 05:09 |
The borders weren't the same at Homer's time as are today in Greece.Known Greece of that time was from Thessaly in the North to Krete in the South and from the Ionian islands in the West to the East-Agean islands in the East.With the first settlement and the second Greece's border where expanded into the whole Mediteranean sea(Spain,France,Italy,Sicily,Sardinia,Corsica,Cyprus,Asia Minor's western and northen shores,Libyan shores,one colony in Egypt,except Middle-East shores),and the Black sea(Ukraine,Bulgaria,Kaukasus,Krimea).Why so much interest about the Hellenic language?Do you like it?
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Hellinas
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Posted: 27-Dec-2004 at 07:26 |
>>Known Greece of that time was from Thessaly in the North to Krete in the South and from the Ionian islands in the West to the East-Agean islands in the East<<
Would you mind explaining were did Macedonia go, in your presentation of the Hellinic borders and what happened to the Troyans, Samothrace, Illyrian tribes not to mention the numerous Hellinic people in Italy long before the foundation of Rome?
If we are to take it a bit further what about the Sea People, the Phillistines or even the Thracians (clearly connected to the Hellinies thanks to latest archeologic finds. see gold mask similar to Agamemnon's and an Olympic ring?
Herodotus does tell us that the Hellines never did have any kind of border, at least that's what I understood when reading his Book I, 56
"These races, Ionian and Dorian, were the foremost in ancient time, the first a Pelasgian and the second an Hellenic people. The Pelasgian stock has never yet left its habitation, the Hellenic has wandered often and afar."
And a little something about your signature. Isocrates doesn't say that "The word Greek is not so much a term of birth as of mentality,and is applied to a common culture rather than to a common descent"
But he clearly said in his "Panegurikos" 4.49-50, we have become the teachers of the world since our intelligenge has surpassed everyone. So the term Hellin has came to suggest no longer a race but an intelligence. So a Helline is he who shares our intelligence or our common race.
"kai mallon Hellenas kaleisthai tous tes paideuseos tes hemeteras E tous tes koines phuseos metechontas."
"E" means "or"
In your "version" it's like everyone influenced by the Hellinic culture were accepted as Hellines and ceased to be what our ancestors always concidered them to be . Which was nothing more than "Barbaroi".
Edited by Hellinas
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azimuth
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Posted: 27-Dec-2004 at 11:57 |
Originally posted by Spartakus
Why so much interest about the Hellenic language?Do you like it? |
i dont know the Hellenic language enough to like it or not
iam just intersted in History in general specialy the Ancient History which Greece is a big part of it
and sometimes i think of some questions which i cant find answers directly in books or in the web.
such as the language difference in Hellenic languages before and now (macidonian used to be very close to the greek language 2000 years ago but it is not any more) also i couldnt find any web yet which tells which statue is the closest one to look like Alexander or at least made when he was alive. i found coins but not statues
somethings like that
also iam planning to visit greece and turkey in 2006
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Hellinas
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Posted: 27-Dec-2004 at 13:45 |
>>macidonian used to be very close to the greek language 2000 years ago but it is not any more<<
What exactly do you mean by saying "it is not any more"? There never was any kind of language difference between the Macedonians and any other Hellinic tribe, simply because that was exactly what they were. All Hellinic tribes that spoke the same language, slight dialect differences, I can understand and accept but there is absolutely NO kind of proof to support this "theory".
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BattleGlory
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Posted: 27-Dec-2004 at 14:32 |
iam talking about ancient times at the time of Socrat and alexander and the region i meant is where is Greece now. |
You'll have to be more specific than that.
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Yiannis
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Posted: 28-Dec-2004 at 08:08 |
There's no point talking about country borders or nations back then. The Greeks were "like frogs around a pond" (I love this expression!) They had built cities all around the Mediterranean and they spoke in many different dialects that were (more or less) mutually understandable. chemas-microsoft-comfficeffice" />>>
Regarding the "roman arch of victory" you probably refer to Hadrian's gate. It was not something that separated Greeks from Romans but a gate commemorating Hadrian who was a great benefactor of Athens. He strongly favored Greek education for Romans and also adopted the Greek idea of separation between "Romans and barbarians" instead of further expansion.>>
>>
Regarding Macedonian/Greek language there's some misconception. Ancient Macedonians were a Greek tribe speaking Greek. Modern day "Macedonians" are Slavs who speak Slavic. They're not the same people; they just took the name of the region where they live (that is the northern part of ancient Macedonia).>>
>>
Hellinas, you read too many ultra-nationalist, ultra-right books. Perhaps you buy them from that ass*ole at "tiletora" channel. or from that fascist site that you posted a few days ago. In any case: THEY ARE WRONG!
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The basis of a democratic state is liberty. Aristotle, Politics
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Hellinas
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Posted: 28-Dec-2004 at 10:05 |
Yiannis
>>Hellinas, you read too many ultra-nationalist, ultra-right books. Perhaps you buy them from that ass*ole at "tiletora" channel. or from that fascist site that you posted a few days ago. In any case: THEY ARE WRONG!<<
What are you talking about? Where do you see anything nationalist in my posts, everything I've written is based on TRUE FACTS. Who is the ass*ole you're refering to and where do you see me supporting anything but my own opinion? I honestly hope that the fascist site you mention isn't the Institute of Language and Speech Processing: ILSP of Thrace, cause that is the only site I posted in here along with Berkleythat is, unless you're talking about some other topic. Anyway, please do explain what you mean by "ultra-nationalist, ultra-right books" and what is the fascist site I've quoted.
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azimuth
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Posted: 28-Dec-2004 at 11:00 |
Originally posted by Hellinas
>>macidonian used to be very close to the greek language 2000 years ago but it is not any more<<
What exactly do you mean by saying "it is not any more"? There never was any kind of language difference between the Macedonians and any other Hellinic tribe, simply because that was exactly what they were. All Hellinic tribes that spoke the same language, slight dialect differences, I can understand and accept but there is absolutely NO kind of proof to support this "theory".
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i meant the modern Macedonians who( i just knew) are not the same as the ancient Macedonians
they are two different people but happened to live in Macedonia
as Yannis explained
Regarding Macedonian/Greek language there's some misconception. Ancient Macedonians were a Greek tribe speaking Greek. Modern day "Macedonians" are Slavs who speak Slavic. They're not the same people; they just took the name of the region where they live (that is the northern part of ancient Macedonia |
make more sense to me
Edited by azimuth
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