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Vivek Sharma
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Topic: Is History a Science? Posted: 15-Sep-2006 at 04:57 |
Newton would have been surprised to have conquered a thread on history !
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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn
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gcle2003
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Posted: 15-Sep-2006 at 05:59 |
Originally posted by Chilbudios
Originally posted by Quetzacoatl
You french Chilb? | No
Wrong. You are confused. The Law changes accordingly, but retained the same name (this is where your confusion stemmed). The law as formulated by Newton is no longer Newton's 2nd Law, but a Law-approximation.
Initial Newton's 2nd law = Law-approximation.
Modern Newton's 2nd law = Law.
future = ? |
Not quite. Modern Newton's 2nd law still says F = m*a. There's also such a law written relativistically. But also Newton 2nd law says F = dp/dt.
I prefer F = dp/dt for two reasons:
a) is more accurate (and wide in appliance)
b) the original formula suggests a variation in time. Therefore we need a /dt to illustrate it. |
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So write it as F=mds/dt, or rather ds/dt=kF which is how Newton expressed it in words. 'Motion' is the change of position (s) with respect to time.
Edited by gcle2003 - 15-Sep-2006 at 06:01
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Chilbudios
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Posted: 15-Sep-2006 at 06:27 |
Quantitas motus est mensura ejusdem orta ex velocitate et quantitate materiae conjunctim. |
This is how Newton understood motion (basically motion is a compound/conjugation/product of mass and speed - it's not a variation of position in time, that is the speed, the velocity - to use a closer word to Newton's) . You're playing with m*a = m*dv/dt = dp/dt with no respect to Newton's formulations.
And actually the formula ds/dt = kF is simply wrong because it doesn't fit the physical units in left (m/s) and right (N) terms.
Let's cut off this ridiculous quarrel and let people talk about history if there's anything left to say.
Edited by Chilbudios - 15-Sep-2006 at 06:54
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Scytho-Sarmatian
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Posted: 15-Sep-2006 at 08:53 |
Originally posted by Aelfgifu
Originally posted by Scytho-Sarmatian
History is nothing more than literature--it's one of the humanities. That's how they explained it at Cal State, where I got my B.A. in History! |
In my uni, History is part of the faculty of Arts. But still, saying that history is the same as German or French... Doesn't work for me. Nor for others: we were thaught that history is a science, albeit a soft one.
There is a school within the Historical community who believe that history is a Social Science. This school is called the Annales, and so is their publication magazine. Probably the most well known historian of this school is Emmanuel LeRoy Ladurie, who wrote 'Montaillou', about the Kathars.
What do you think about that point of view? |
I'm familiar with the integration of history and the social sciences. However, I see the social sciences as support for history, but I don't see history as one of the social sciences. Correct me if I am wrong, but I believe my viewpoint is in line with Fernand Braudel's approach.
The methodology of writing history is called historiography. It is an organized system based on accepted standards, though I don't think even historiography could be called a science.
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Aelfgifu
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Posted: 15-Sep-2006 at 09:04 |
I am not sure if science is indeed the right word. Problem is, the term I meant does not have an English equivalent. It is 'wetenschap' in Dutch, 'Wissenschaft' in German. It is not quite the same as science. Does anybody know a better word? Scholarship perhaps... Sounds strange though...
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Reginmund
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Posted: 15-Sep-2006 at 13:03 |
"Vitenskap" in Norwegian, and yes, I know the problem of that linguistic subtlety well, though it's non-existant to English-speakers of course.
If I were to attempt a literal translation, it'd be " knowledge-craft", which is a great deal wider as a concept than science, if it is taken to mean natural science only.
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gcle2003
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Posted: 16-Sep-2006 at 08:30 |
Originally posted by Chilbudios
Quantitas motus est mensura ejusdem orta ex velocitate et quantitate materiae conjunctim. |
This is how Newton understood motion (basically motion is a compound/conjugation/product of mass and speed - it's not a variation of position in time, that is the speed, the velocity - to use a closer word to Newton's) . You're playing with m*a = m*dv/dt = dp/dt with no respect to Newton's formulations.
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Fine. But the point is that Newton considered the 'quantitate materiae' - 'mass' as we might say - to be independent of the speed. 'Motus' is therefore a constant times the velocity, and since it is constant, then d(mv)/dt = mdv/dt - the constant can be taken out of the brackets.
It's not until SR and the dependency of mass on speed that the (mv) can't be split up, and you need to substitute dp/dt.
And actually the formula ds/dt = kF is simply wrong because it doesn't fit the physical units in left (m/s) and right (N) terms.
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You're ignoring the dimensionality of k. More importantly it is what Newton actually wrote. He said the 'change in the motion' was proportional to the force applied. Temporarily ignoring the question of what 'motion' means here - call it x - you therefore have directly dx/dt = k F - the change in something is a constant times the force. It is not necessarily a dimensionless constant, any more than g is a dimensionless constant.
If x is taken to be velocity (not speed) then the dimensions of k are 1/m in standard terminology, which balances the dimensional equation.
Let's cut off this ridiculous quarrel and let people talk about history if there's anything left to say. |
But it is a specifically historical question. We are not talking about what is right or wrong scientifically, but about what Newton thought (and indeed, if we want an idea of what 'motus' meant, we have to look at Galileo and others as well).
And that's a historical question.
Edited by gcle2003 - 16-Sep-2006 at 08:39
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TheDiplomat
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Posted: 16-Sep-2006 at 18:14 |
History is for sure a science. Because history is the matrix of the future.
Do you need experiments to prove?
What springs to me inially are The Nazi Germany and The USSR..They were the experiments of mankind.
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Chilbudios
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Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 06:03 |
Fine. But the point is that Newton considered the 'quantitate materiae' - 'mass' as we might say - to be independent of the speed. 'Motus' is therefore a constant times the velocity, and since it is constant, then d(mv)/dt = mdv/dt - the constant can be taken out of the brackets. It's not until SR and the dependency of mass on speed that the (mv) can't be split up, and you need to substitute dp/dt. |
Everybody on this thread agreed on Newtonian mechanics having its problems which were largely solved by SR (the issue of newtonian mass vs relativistic being discussed all over). The only thing you failed to admit so far is that Newton's own formula of 2nd law is compatibile with SR.
It's not until SR and the dependency of mass on speed that the (mv) can't be split up, and you need to substitute dp/dt. |
As I've shown motus for Newton means p, then Newton's own formula gives dp/dt, so no substitution is needed
You're ignoring the dimensionality of k. More importantly it is what Newton actually wrote. He said the 'change in the motion' was proportional to the force applied. Temporarily ignoring the question of what 'motion' means here - call it x - you therefore have directly dx/dt = k F - the change in something is a constant times the force. It is not necessarily a dimensionless constant, any more than g is a dimensionless constant. |
If you bring original entities, please bring their definitions too. Usually, k is a numeric a-dimensional constant if not specified otherwise. And you cannot claim your formula is implied by Newton's text because it's not. It was en euphemism to call it just wrong, but your insistence bring the revelation. F = m*dv/dt = m*d2s/dt2 - to write the force as function of space/position (s) and time (t) you have to invoke the double derivative!! (in plain English that would be the variation of the variation). Therefore, to use your original notation k = 1/m, the equations would look like d2s/dt2 = kF, not ds/dt = kF - a formula which has absolutely no connection to Newton's laws.
But it is a specifically historical question. We are not talking about what is right or wrong scientifically, but about what Newton thought (and indeed, if we want an idea of what 'motus' meant, we have to look at Galileo and others as well). And that's a historical question. |
I hope you're joking. This is a thread about whether and how history is a science or not. This is what I ment, this is why several people drew our attention.
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Reginmund
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Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 07:36 |
Guys, I don't wish to be a spoilsport here, but you're flooding the thread with a physics discussion that really should have had a thread of its own.
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malizai_
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Posted: 17-Sep-2006 at 12:03 |
I have found the dicussion very interesting and i suppose is one way to learn if history is a science.
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honeybee
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Posted: 20-Sep-2006 at 21:35 |
History is a science when people applies scientific methods into it. History in Asia seems to be viewed more "scientifically" imo because they have little toleration for radical alternative views and call them anti-history. In the west, history seems to be more of a literature since all views, even those that are radical and fanatic is respected.
However, if evolution can be considered science, I don't see why history cannot.
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Aelfgifu
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Posted: 21-Sep-2006 at 03:44 |
Hm, no. I dont quite agree with you. First of all, not all radical or different views on history are just accepted like that in the west. There are lots of strange and funny theories that only have a small following.
On the other hand, to a certain degree, we are abit more liberal to other views, because this is the scientific method! Simply coming up with one theory and dismissing anyone who things differently is not!
Science is making a theory and putting it to the test to see if it holds. In history, this means making an interpretation and seeing if others are possible. If all other views are considered 'anti-history', all progress is stopped, and history is dead.
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honeybee
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Posted: 26-Sep-2006 at 21:24 |
I think this "liberal" is going abit to far. To the extent that nonsense such as 1421 are circulating widely and gaining attention instead of University published books. Since the west is more capitalist, what people likes to hear gets sold more often.
What I'm trying to say, perhaps is that history in the eastern countries(ignoring the nationalitic bias) has more authority that determines what is "right and wrong". While in the west, there are lots of independent radical revionist "historians" who uses little scientific methods in their work and becomes tolerated. Even those whose profession aren't history gets published(this is the negative affect of the "no new theory, not a good historian" attitude).
This is why many people view history as just another brand of literature, (while in China this debate would probably not even exist, since the common attitude is that history is in fact science, and the whole point of studying history is to take its utilitarin aspects.)when it is clearly science in the authorative academic field.
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Vivek Sharma
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Posted: 27-Sep-2006 at 02:01 |
History is the art of telling scientifically the developments in human evolution !!!
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PATTON NAGAR, Brains win over Brawn
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