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Quetzalcoatl View Drop Down
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  Quote Quetzalcoatl Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Topic: Normans?
    Posted: 23-Jul-2006 at 21:16
Originally posted by gcle2003

 
Bretons are French? I suppose the Welsh are English?
 
The concept of 'Frenchness' took even longer to emerge than the concept of 'Englishness'.
 
The Bretons are actually French; I think you are confused here. In 1066, the Breton weren't french, but still culturally close to the surrounding French neighbours. Unlike Normandy which was as French as you can get by 1066, the Breton managed to conserve their culture up to before the French revolution. The Celtic (Briton) heritage is still strong in Brittany even nowadays. The Bretons, nowdays, are without any doubt French. LePen is a Breton to say the least.
 
The Breton-Welsh analogy is essentially flawed. British is the equivalent of French, not English. It is the UK that is made up of England, scotland, Wales etc not England. 
 
An the concept of frenchness is more ancient than Englishness and date around 500, after Clovis set his capital in Paris. Around this time, French culture slowly took form; it was an amalgam of the local Gallo-roman and Frankish cultures. For instance old French was made up of an admixture of Romance and Frankish. The culture was quick to spread to nearby region.


Edited by Quetzalcoatl - 23-Jul-2006 at 21:24
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 04:21
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

Originally posted by gcle2003

 
Bretons are French? I suppose the Welsh are English?
 
The concept of 'Frenchness' took even longer to emerge than the concept of 'Englishness'.
 
The Bretons are actually French; I think you are confused here. In 1066, the Breton weren't french, but still culturally close to the surrounding French neighbours. Unlike Normandy which was as French as you can get by 1066, the Breton managed to conserve their culture up to before the French revolution. The Celtic (Briton) heritage is still strong in Brittany even nowadays. The Bretons, nowdays, are without any doubt French. LePen is a Breton to say the least.
 
The Breton-Welsh analogy is essentially flawed. British is the equivalent of French, not English. It is the UK that is made up of England, scotland, Wales etc not England. 
 
An the concept of frenchness is more ancient than Englishness and date around 500, after Clovis set his capital in Paris. Around this time, French culture slowly took form; it was an amalgam of the local Gallo-roman and Frankish cultures. For instance old French was made up of an admixture of Romance and Frankish. The culture was quick to spread to nearby region.
 
One point is that I think you confuse Frankish and French. There's also a confusion between being legally French and feeling French. This doesn't arise in the UK because there is no legal concept of Englishness - or even Britishness. The only related legal concept is that of a 'citizen of the United Kingdom', which more or less replaced 'subject of the Queen' (colloquially 'British subject') in the 1970s.
 
However, yes, 'are the Catalans Spanish?' would be a better analogy.
 
Even now many Bretons - I've met some - don't consider themselves French, though legally they are of course. (Le Pen is a bit of a red herring: was any family more patriotically English than the Tudors, who were Welsh?)
 
Are present-day Walloons and Luxembourgers 'French'? 15th century Burgundians didn't consider themselves French. Neither did the Catalan Cathars in the 14th century.
 
You're using 'French' in several different senses - French-speaking, allegiance to the French throne, belonging to a Frankish tribe, or even just living in what is now French territory - and using the appellation for anyone who fits under any possible interpretation.
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 04:40
Well, the Breton are really apart somehow since they have a distinct culture.

Nowaday though, and I'm not only talking legaly, they are French. Although in 1066 and prior to the 20th century they clearly had a disctinct culture.

There has been, by now, a lot of intermixing with Bretons and the rest of French. There aren't a lot of Breton that can speak their language too. French has completly taken over. This nationalism there is really contained, and it's more about people who want to look interesting that real national desire.

It's the same really for southern France, in my example, Gascony or sometimes refered on Aquitaine (back then, later Aquitaine would take another meaning), which is the place I'm from. In 1066 we certainly weren't French (although it is said some of us took part in the Battle of Hastings, there has been a few books on that I should take the time to read one on the aquitanian participation in Hastings), we had an occitan culture which was clearly distinct of the one in Paris (or Normandy since for us it's the same, they were always together when it came to f**k us) and even inside the Occitan group we had a completly distinct culture (for insistance, most occitan languages come from vulgar latin, like French or Italian, Gascon comes from the Aquitanian language and evolve to a romance one, the phonetic and vocabulary is completly different of other occitan languages), different laws, different cuisine, different sports (in Northern France they played an older form of Soccer that Normandy introduced in England, here we had Basque sports), different architecture (see the houses and castles, you'll understand)

Most of that isn't true for the Normans, they had some scandinavian culture, yet to claim it above their French one is ridiculous. The had the French law, the French language, French haircut, French architecture, French cuisine etc...

@gcle2003
Don't you rather mean Occitan Cathars rather than Catalan Cathars? I don't quite like my native city of Toulouse being associated to those people from Barcelona, Valencia and even Perpignan thank you.
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  Quote Quetzalcoatl Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 06:56
Originally posted by gcle2003

 
One point is that I think you confuse Frankish and French. There's also a confusion between being legally French and feeling French. This doesn't arise in the UK because there is no legal concept of Englishness - or even Britishness. The only related legal concept is that of a 'citizen of the United Kingdom', which more or less replaced 'subject of the Queen' (colloquially 'British subject') in the 1970s.
 
Frankish is actually the same thing as French. French people don't call themselves French but Francais (in English it's translate to Frankish not French). THe name French arose in England simply because the English couldn't pronounce Franc correctly.
 
Returning to the topic. No I'm not confuse, I have a correct of what the earliest French culture was. Which was an amalgam of Frank and Gallo-roman culture. The centre and origin of French culture was Paris and it spread nearby area around the year 500. That was the origin of the culture. There were Salian Franks, then Merovingian Franks (mixed Franks and Gallo-roman and the nucleus of French culture) and finally French.
 
 
Even now many Bretons - I've met some - don't consider themselves French, though legally they are of course. (Le Pen is a bit of a red herring: was any family more patriotically English than the Tudors, who were Welsh?)
 
Britanny bordered Normandy. I've met many Bretons during my trips to normandy and not one of them feel they were less French than say a normans. Most Breton as a matter of fact feel French. You'll meet one or two bretons who are desperate separatists, but nowadays Britanny is a strong patriotic stronghold.
 
Are present-day Walloons and Luxembourgers 'French'?
 
Luxemburgers? I don't think so. Walloons are culturally French without any doubt, but their nationality is Belgian.
 
 15th century Burgundians didn't consider themselves French. Neither did the Catalan Cathars in the 14th century.
 
Burgundian is a hard case to access. I would be inclined to say they weren't French at that time.
 
You're using 'French' in several different senses - French-speaking, allegiance to the French throne, belonging to a Frankish tribe, or even just living in what is now French territory - and using the appellation for anyone who fits under any possible interpretation.
 
No, you are no getting the subtlety in my argument. I was pointing to the origin of French culture and what Frenchness meant in those early days. But the term has evolved with time and nowadays it means altogether a different thing. But no one can deny the origin of Frenchness date around 500 after Clovis.


Edited by Quetzalcoatl - 24-Jul-2006 at 07:00
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 08:06
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

Frankish is actually the same thing as French. French people don't call themselves French but Francais (in English it's translate to Frankish not French). THe name French arose in England simply because the English couldn't pronounce Franc correctly.


Actually, that's a little confusing but French isn't Frankish in French. It's the latin language that doesn't do the distinction.

French (modern people) is Franais
Frankish (old Frankish from the times of Charlemagne) is Franc
Frankish (modern Frankish spoken in Lorraine) is Francique
Franconian (that the Germans call Frankish in their language) is Francique too.

That being said, before the oath of Strasbourg, it's impossible to track a French indentity, before that it was more split between Frankish and Gallo-Romance who shared the same land. Although, before of the roman empire they were already closer that they would have ever accepted.
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  Quote edgewaters Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 10:31
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

Frankish is actually the same thing as French.


Definately not.

The Franks were a collection of Germanic tribes including the Sugambri and Bructeri. They crossed the Rhine, causing problems for Emperor Julian who decided to grant them lands in northern Gaul, where they settled. The Dutch language traces its roots back to Old Low Franconian, a Germanic language.
    
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 10:42
Anyway, I don't see the comparison really between Franks and Normans.

Franks refered to a Germanic people which had clear tribal origins and that disapeared in history. They had no clear country beyond the one they aquired in Gaul which would become France and before that they migrated and had no clear clearly organised laws or society (it was a very barbaric society before they settled in Gaul, compare it with Aquitaine that retained the Roman law for ages after the fall of Rome).

The Normans are not a tribe but a product of history, they had a clear and established land, Normandy, where the Norman culture orginated (like the French culture originated in France has a whole), a clear language (the French one with dialectic difference), clear laws and established society. And there is hundred of years between Franks and Normans.
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 10:52
Originally posted by edgewaters

Definately not.

The Franks were a collection of Germanic tribes including the Sugambri and Bructeri. They crossed the Rhine, causing problems for Emperor Julian who decided to grant them lands in northern Gaul, where they settled. The Dutch language traces its roots back to Old Low Franconian, a Germanic language.
    


Well to be more accurate, it's the Belgian that have the most serious claim to be the closest heirs to the Franks really. Flanders (but also Wallonia) had the highest proportion of settlement of Franks if you follow the number of burial sites. France, quantity wise, had a much bigger settlement (still on the burial sites) but the proportion, on France as a whole, is much lower (although the Franks didn't stop at a borderline that didn't exist, northeastern France received a lot of settlement (beyond the French Flanders).
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  Quote Quetzalcoatl Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 19:31
Originally posted by Exarchus

Actually, that's a little confusing but French isn't Frankish in French. It's the latin language that doesn't do the distinction.

French (modern people) is Franais
Frankish (old Frankish from the times of Charlemagne) is Franc
Frankish (modern Frankish spoken in Lorraine) is Francique
Franconian (that the Germans call Frankish in their language) is Francique too.

That being said, before the oath of Strasbourg, it's impossible to track a French indentity, before that it was more split between Frankish and Gallo-Romance who shared the same land. Although, before of the roman empire they were already closer that they would have ever accepted.
 
That's obvious. But you do have to agree that French people don't call themselves French but Frankish (as a direct translation).
 
Franc + ais (or more ois as in the old days) = Frank + ish . Francais does not translate literally to French.
 
It's like Anglais = Angle + ais = Angle +  ish = Anglish or English.
 
The word "French" only appeared because of direct French contact with the English. It is a perversion of the name Franc (Frank). But you see similar names have different meaning at different time. It's confusing but i hope you get the nuance in the argument. Frankish is the proper translation for Francais, while "French" is a pervesion of the word Franc.


Edited by Quetzalcoatl - 24-Jul-2006 at 19:40
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  Quote Quetzalcoatl Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 24-Jul-2006 at 19:33
Originally posted by edgewaters

Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

Frankish is actually the same thing as French.


Definately not.

The Franks were a collection of Germanic tribes including the Sugambri and Bructeri. They crossed the Rhine, causing problems for Emperor Julian who decided to grant them lands in northern Gaul, where they settled. The Dutch language traces its roots back to Old Low Franconian, a Germanic language.
    
 
LOL. It only take a fine mind to understand the nuance in my argument; clearly you are confused here. Dude, a Frank prior to the Barbarian invasion wasn't the same as a Frank after the barbarian invasion. The name Frank is still in use nowadays as in Francais. (Frank + ish)


Edited by Quetzalcoatl - 24-Jul-2006 at 19:35
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 02:35
Ok I see what you mean, Franais is etymologicaly Frankish in French. But we don't use it the same way.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 03:48
Originally posted by Exarchus


@gcle2003
Don't you rather mean Occitan Cathars rather than Catalan Cathars? I don't quite like my native city of Toulouse being associated to those people from Barcelona, Valencia and even Perpignan thank you.
 
I did slip, yes, but I think it would be most accurate to say 'occitan and catalan', and even then I might well get some complaints from the odd Basque or two.
 
It's some while since I read Montaillou, but the shepherds of the area at least happily lived on both sides of the Pyrenees, whatever the legal situation. I got the impression from the book that the local Cathars were Catalan-speaking, but you are of course right that the major figures involved in the movement were Occitan.
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 03:53
Originally posted by Exarchus

Originally posted by edgewaters

Definately not.

The Franks were a collection of Germanic tribes including the Sugambri and Bructeri. They crossed the Rhine, causing problems for Emperor Julian who decided to grant them lands in northern Gaul, where they settled. The Dutch language traces its roots back to Old Low Franconian, a Germanic language.
    


Well to be more accurate, it's the Belgian that have the most serious claim to be the closest heirs to the Franks really.
 
Well, the Belgians speak Dutch <ducks hurriedly>, so that does not invalidate exarchus's point.
 
 
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  Quote gcle2003 Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 04:47
 
Originally posted by Quetzalcoatl

Originally posted by Exarchus

Actually, that's a little confusing but French isn't Frankish in French. It's the latin language that doesn't do the distinction.

French (modern people) is Franais
Frankish (old Frankish from the times of Charlemagne) is Franc
Frankish (modern Frankish spoken in Lorraine) is Francique
Franconian (that the Germans call Frankish in their language) is Francique too.

That being said, before the oath of Strasbourg, it's impossible to track a French indentity, before that it was more split between Frankish and Gallo-Romance who shared the same land. Although, before of the roman empire they were already closer that they would have ever accepted.
 
That's obvious. But you do have to agree that French people don't call themselves French but Frankish (as a direct translation).
 
No they don't. They call themselves 'les franais'. The English translation of 'franais' is 'French'. When French people talk of the Franks in my experience they talk of 'les francs'. That's also born out by the French wikipedia at http://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Francs and in many other web references. French historians quite correctly state that Charlemagne was crowned "Empereur des Francs et des Romains". Not "Empereur des Franais et des Romains". 
 
There are therefore two quite distinct nouns involved. 'Franais' = 'Frenchman'; 'Franc' = 'Frank'.
 
And as someone has pointed out you are also wrong to assert there is only one associated adjective. You have again 'franais' = 'French' and 'francique' = 'Frankish'.
 
In any case of course in all languages there are cases where the same word can cover two or more different circumstances. That dogs bark, trees have bark, and barks are ships doesn't mean that they have anything in common except the name.
 
Franc + ais (or more ois as in the old days) = Frank + ish . Francais does not translate literally to French.
 
It's like Anglais = Angle + ais = Angle +  ish = Anglish or English.
 
That's the point: the language is deficient, because the English are certainly not Angles (except in a minor sort of way).
 
The word "French" only appeared because of direct French contact with the English.
Well, it's an English word, and since this is an English language forum we ought to be discussing the emergence of the concept of 'Frenchness' in its English meaning.
It is a perversion of the name Franc (Frank). But you see similar names have different meaning at different time. It's confusing but i hope you get the nuance in the argument. Frankish is the proper translation for Francais, while "French" is a pervesion of the word Franc.
 
No. 'French' is the proper English translation for 'franais', just as 'franzsisch' is the proper German translation. To translate it as 'Frankish' on English or 'Frnkisch' in German would simply be a mistake.


Edited by gcle2003 - 25-Jul-2006 at 04:49
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 10:10
Originally posted by gcle2003

Well, the Belgians speak Dutch <ducks hurriedly>, so that does not invalidate exarchus's point.


Huh? My point was the Belgian were the strongest claimant and not the Dutch, beside Belgium is also French speaking as far as I remember. The earliest capital of the Franks, Tournai, is even French speaking as we speak.

The home town of the Carolingian dinasty is Herstal located around Liege and it's also French speaking (Pippin of Herstal).
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 10:12
Anyway, if the etymoligy of the word is interesting for history and evolution of languages, it's not the word that matters (which is technicaly only a succession of letters) but the meaning we put behind it. In that way, French is no more deficient than English or German. I find the disctinction between Franais, Francique and Franc far clearer than French, Frankish and Frankish.
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  Quote edgewaters Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 13:42
Originally posted by Exarchus


Originally posted by gcle2003

Well, the Belgians speak Dutch <ducks hurriedly>, so that does not invalidate exarchus's point.
Huh? My point was the Belgian were the strongest claimant and not the Dutch, beside Belgium is also French speaking as far as I remember. The earliest capital of the Franks, Tournai, is even French speaking as we speak.The home town of the Carolingian dinasty is Herstal located around Liege and it's also French speaking (Pippin of Herstal).


Sure, geographically, but linguistically, Dutch is alot closer to Old Low Franconian than French is. OLF is not a Romance language - it is strictly Germanic.

Example, "Hebben alle vogels nesten begonnen behalve ik en u wat beginnen we nu?" ("All the birds have started their nests except me and you. What are we waiting for now?")
    
    

Edited by edgewaters - 25-Jul-2006 at 13:46
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  Quote Exarchus Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 15:26
yes of course, but languages change, and the French language didn't exist back then (at least we had no text from it). From a strictly cultural point of view, the old Franks left no direct heirs since their language is extinguished.

Only political survivors left, and it was the Kingdom France since the HRE collapsed. The French republic was the political successor of the Kingdom of France. Belgium was part of France for a time but being created later it's not a political successor.

About descendants, their probably most credible claimant would be Belgians and more precisely living on the French borderline (NW French also have a serious claim since they had a lot of burial sites, they probably experienced a strong settlement).
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  Quote Chilbudios Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 16:16
This thread progresses fast and there's a lot of aspects I'd wanted to talk about. However, until I'll find the mood to compile them all into one post, I'll just want to add something I find vital and I see it's not considered.
 
A Romanic language, a proto-French, is indirectly attested from the Carolingian period, a lingua Romana rustica opposing lingua theodisca. In 813 at the Council of Tours, the priests are required to preach in Latin, Old Germanic or Vulgar langauge. Eligius, Mommelin or St. Gall seem to have used a Vulgar Romanic language.
Also the glosses of Reichenau on the Bible are interesting as they point some possible realities of the language spoken in those times.
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  Quote edgewaters Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25-Jul-2006 at 16:21
Originally posted by Exarchus

From a strictly cultural point of view, the old Franks left no direct heirs since their language is extinguished.


OLF is also Old Dutch, so its not extinguished except in the same sense that Old English is extinguished.
    
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