Though Herodotus knew of the Sarmatians I can't see how he would have called them Slavs since that term wasn't in use then.
The Sarmatians were in the Iranian basin and Eastern Europe. Centuries later the Slavs populated the area of the latter. The ancient Greeks and Byzantines did have border relations with each multi-ethnic group from those regions. Maybe that is where a possible connection comes from.
Slavs, Bulgars and Huns assimilated the Sarmatians, the Rohshalani and Alani were Sarmatian tribes - the present day Ossetians (Iron/Digor people) are the sole direct descendants of the Saramtians.
Of the major Sarmatian confederations listed by Strabo, the Iazyges and Roxolani were the two primarily settled in Eastern Europe, that is, in and around the eastern Danube region and into the Hungarian Plain. However, as Zagros mentioned, the late 4th C. arrival of the Huns into the Plains saw the assimilation of what remained of these tribes.
Do modern day slavs have much Iranian blood in them? Like, are modern day Ukranians the direct descendents of Sarmatian tribes, or did Slavs migrate to the area later?
Edit:
Also, Zagros, t'would be great if you could reply to my Private Message.
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